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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Edited By Priyanka kumari | Updated on Aug 22, 2022 11:50 AM IST

NCERT exemplar Class 11 Biology solutions chapter 10 talk about one very important process that takes place in the bodies of living organisms and is considered crucial for their growth and development. The life of every living organism first starts with a single cell as we know, then new cells come into existence from pre-existing cells. The process of how the cells multiply their genome and eventually divide into two daughter cells is called the cell cycle. This NCERT exemplar Class 11 Biology solutions chapter 10 includes information about the cell cycle, DNA, the different stages of the cell cycle, the process of mitosis and meiosis along with the significance of both and how they are different from each other.
Also, check NCERT Class 11 Biology Solutions

The following set of NCERT exemplar Class 11 Biology solutions chapter 10 has been prepared by professionals who have immense knowledge on the particular matter with a motive to solve all your queries and answer your doubts reasonably. NCERT exemplar Class 11 Biology solutions chapter 10 pdf download can also be accessed by students using different online tools to save the page as pdf.

Here are the NCERT exemplar Class 11 Biology solutions of chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division:

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question:1

Meiosis in diploid organisms results in
(a) Production of gametes
(b) Reduction in the number of chromosomes
(c) All of the above
(d) Introduction of variation

Answer:

The answer is the option (c) All of the above
Explanation: Meiosis results in a reduction of the number of chromosomes and gametes are formed only after meiosis. Crossing over during meiosis leads to variations. Hence, all the options are correct.

Question:2

At which stage of meiosis does the genetic constitution of gametes is finally decided
(a) Metaphase I
(b) Anaphase I
(c) Metaphase II
(d) Anaphase II

Answer:

The answer is the option (b) Anaphase I
Explanation: In anaphase I of meiosis, the actual reduction occurs which decides the genetic constitution of the gamete. Every single homologous chromosome with its two chromatids and unsegregated centromere moves to the opposite poles of the cell.

Question:3

Meiosis occurs in organisms during
(a) Sexual reproduction
(b) Vegetative reproduction
(c) Both sexual and vegetative reproduction
(d) None of the above

Answer:

The answer is the option (c) Sexual reproduction
Explanation: Option ‘a’ is correct because there is no need for meiosis during vegetative reproduction.

Question:4

During anaphase-I of meiosis
(a) Non-sister chromatids separate
(b) Non-homologous autosomes separate
(c) Sister chromatids separate
(d) Homologous chromosomes separate

Answer:

(d) Homologous chromosomes separate
Explanation: Homologous chromosomes segregated during Anaphase I.

Question:5

Mitosis is characterised by
(a) Reduction division
(b) Both reduction and equal division
(c) Equal division
(d) Pairing of homologous chromosomes

Answer:

The answer is the option (c) Equal division
Explanation: There is no reduction in chromosomes, and hence mitosis is also called an equal division.

Question:6

A bivalent of meiosis-I consists of
(a) Four chromatids and two centromere
(b) Two chromatids and two centromere
(c) Two chromatids and one centromere
(d) Four chromatids and four centromere

Answer:

Ans. The answer is the option (a) Four chromatids and two centromere
Explanation: Bivalent is formed by pairing of two chromosomes. Hence, bivalent contains four chromatids and four centromeres.

Question:7

Cells which are not dividing are likely to be at
(a) G1
(b) G2
(c) S phase
(d) G0

Answer:

The answer is the option (d) G0
Explanation: Phase G0 is also called the quiescent phase, and no cell division takes place during this phase.

Question:8

Which of the events listed below is not observed during mitosis?
(a) Crossing over
(b) Movement of centrioles to opposite poles
(c) Appearance of chromosomes with two chromatids joined together at the centromere.
(d) Chromatin condensation

Answer:

The answer is the option (a) Crossing over
Explanation: Crossing overtakes place only during prophase I of meiosis.

Question:9

Identify the wrong statement about meiosis
(a) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
(b) Two cycles of DNA replication occur
(c) At the end of meiosis, the number of chromosomes is reduced to half
(d) Four haploid cells are formed

Answer:

The answer is the option (b) Two cycles of DNA replication occur
Explanation: The number of chromosomes in daughter cells gets half, so there is no need for another cycle of DNA replication.

Question:10

Select the correct statement about G1 phase
(a) Cell is metabolically inactive
(b) It is not a phase of synthesis of macromolecules
(c) DNA in the cell does not replicate
(d) Cell stops growing

Answer:

The answer is the option (c) DNA in the cell does not replicate
Explanation: The cell is metabolically active during the G1 phase and continues to grow and carries out the synthesis of macromolecules, but DNA synthesis does not take place in this phase.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question:1

Between a prokaryote and a eukaryote, which cell has a shorter cell division time?

Answer:

Prokaryote has a shorter division time.

Question:2

Which of the phases of the cell cycle is of longest duration?

Answer:

Interphase is the longest phase of the cell cycle.

Question:3

Name a stain commonly used to colour chromosomes.

Answer:

Acetocarmine and Giemsa stain is used to colour chromosomes.

Question:4

Which tissue of animals and plants exhibits meiosis?

Answer:

Germ cells of male and female reproductive organs in animals and plants exhibit meiosis.

Question:5

Given that the average duplication time of E coli is 20 minutes how much time will two E coli cells take to become 32 cells.

Answer:
It will take them about 1 hour 20 minutes.
Number of cells after 20 minutes = 4 Number of cells after 40 minutes = 8 Number of cells after 60 minutes = 16 Number of cells after 80 minutes = 32

Question:6

Which part of the human body should one use to demonstrate stages in mitosis?

Answer:
To demonstrate stages of mitosis in humans beings, any part that contains somatic cells can be used.

Question:7

What attributes does a chromatid require to be classified as a chromosome?

Answer:
To be classified as a chromosome. There should be two identical sister chromatids attached at the center by the centromere.

Question:8

The diagram shows a bivalent at prophase-I of meiosis. Which of the four chromatids can cross over?

Answer:

In this situation, non-sister chromatids can cross over. Crossing over always takes place between two non-sister chromatids and never between two sister chromatids.

Question:9

If a tissue has at a given time 1024 cells, how many cycles of mitosis had the original parental single cell undergone?

Answer:
210 = 1024
The above equation proves that a cell must undergo 10 rounds of mitosis to produce 1024 cells.

Question:10

An anther has 1200 pollen grains. How many pollen mother cells must have been there to produce them?

Answer:

1200 / 4 = 300 (one mother cell produces four daughter cells after the process of meiosis). Therefore, there must be 300 pollen mother cells to produce 1200 pollen grains.

Question:11

At what stage of the cell cycle does DNA synthesis take place?

Answer:

DNA synthesis takes place during the S phase.

Question:14

In which phase of meiosis are the following formed? Choose the answers from hint points given below.
(a) Synaptonemal complex _____
(b) Recombination nodules _____
(c) Appearance/activation of ____ enzyme recombinase
(d) Termination of chiasmata ____
(e) Interkinesis _____
(f) Formation of dyad of cells _____

Answer:
(a) Zygotene
(b) Pachytene
(c) Telophase - I/After Meiosis – I
(d) Diakinesis
(e) After Telophase - I/before Meiosis – II
(f) Pachytene

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question:1

State the role of centrioles other than spindle formation.

Answer:

Apart from its role in spindle formation, Centrioles also forms the basal body of cilia and flagella. They also aid in the formation of microtubules and sperm tails.

Question:2

Mitochondria and plastids have their own DNA (genetic material). What is known about their fate during nuclear division like mitosis?

Answer:
The DNA in mitochondria and plastids are extra-genomic DNA in nature. They have no correlation with the nuclear division during mitosis. Thus, karyokinesis during cell division has no effect on extra-genomic DNAs.

Question:3

Label the diagram and also determine the stage at which this structure is visible

Answer:

Transition from prophase to metaphase during mitosis.


Question:4

A cell has 32 chromosomes. It undergoes mitotic division. What will be the chromosome number (N) during metaphase? What would be the DNA content (C) during anaphase?

Answer:

The number will remain 32 because the number of chromosomes does not change during metaphase or anaphase. DNA replication takes place during the S phase and hence, the DNA content gets doubled after the S phase; and will remain so during mitosis.

Cell Cycle and Cell Division Exercise: 1.4

Question:5

While examining the mitotic stage in a tissue, one finds some cells with 16 chromosomes and some with 32 chromosomes. What possible reasons could you assign to this difference in chromosome number? Do you think cells with 16 chromosomes could have arisen from cells with 32 chromosomes or vice versa?

Answer:

The difference in the chromosome numbers can be attributed to Mosaicism. It is the phenomenon that describes the existence of two types of chromosome numbers in a different cell of the body. This situation arises due to lag of anaphase or non-disjunction of chromosomes.

Question:6

The following events occur during the various phases of the cell cycle, Name the phase against each of the events.
(a) Disintegration of nuclear membrane
(b) Appearance of nucleolus
(c) Division of centromere
(d) Replication of DNA

Answer:

(a) Prophase
(b) Telophase
(c) Anaphase
(d) S-phase

Question:7

Mitosis results in producing two cells which are similar to each other. What would be the consequence if each of the following irregularities occur during mitosis?

(a) Nuclear membrane fails to disintegrate
(b) Duplication of DNA does not occur
(c) Centromeres do not divide
(d) Cytokinesis does not occur.

Answer:

(a) The spindle fibres would not be able to reach chromosomes if the nuclear membrane fails to disintegrate. Because of this, the chromosomes would not be able to reach the opposite poles of the cell.

(b) The cell may not be able to reach the M phase if the DNA duplication does not take place. This shall result in the cessation of the cell cycle.

(c) If the division of centromeres does not take place, then one of the daughter cells will get a complete pair of chromosomes, and another daughter cell will get none. This may result in trisomy.

(d) If cytokinesis does not occur, then a cell with the multinucleate condition would be formed.

Question:8

Both unicellular and multicellular organisms undergo mitosis. What are the differences, if any, observed in the process between the two?

Answer:

In unicellular organisms, the cells are divided into two parts. This type of cell division is called amitosis. In multicellular organisms, karyokinesis takes place before the division of cytoplasm. In amitosis, duplication of DNA content takes place simultaneously with the division of the nucleus. In the case of multicellular organisms, there is a separate S phase for duplication of DNA.

Question:9

Name the pathological condition when uncontrolled cell division occurs.

Answer:

Malignancy is the pathological condition when uncontrolled cell division occurs.

Question:10

Two key events take place, during S phase in animal cells, DNA replication and duplication of the centriole. In which parts of the cell do events occur?

Answer:

While the process of the duplication of the centriole takes place in the cytoplasm, the process of DNA replication occurs in the nucleus

Question:11

Comment on the statement - Meiosis enables the conservation of specific chromosome number of each species even though the process per se, results in a reduction of chromosome number

Answer:

During fertilization, when two haploid cells (gametes) fuse, the formation of diploid zygote takes place. In case of absence of meiosis, production of two diploid gametes would take place, result in the formation of tetraploid zygote. Meiosis is extremely important to conserve the chromosome number

Question:12

Name a cell that is found arrested in diplotene stage for months and years. Comment in 2-3 lines how it completes the cell cycle?

Answer:

The cell that get arrested in the diplotene stage is the oocyte of mammalian females. It grows and forms secondary follicle, then subsequently its growth is arrested at the diplotene stage. The first meiosis gets completed when the woman gains sexual maturity. The meiosis takes place one by one in the egg that is released from the ovary.

Question:13

How does cytokinesis in plant cells differ from that in animal cells?

Answer:

Animal Cytokinesis

Plant Cytokinesis

It takes place through cleavage.

It takes place by the cell plate method.

Soon after anaphase, there is a degeneration of spindle.

During cytokinesis, the spindle persists.

The cleavage progresses centripetally.

The growth of the cell plate takes place centrifugally.

The derivation of the new cell membrane takes place through endoplasmic reticulum.

The derivation of the new cell membrane is from the vesicles of Golgi apparatus.


Long Answer Type Questions:

Question:1

Comment on the statement - Telophase is reverse of prophase.

Answer:

Following contrasting features between prophase and telophase prove that telophase is reverse of prophase.
Prophase -

  1. Mitochondria, Golgi Complex, ER, etc. disappear in the prophase.

  2. Nuclear membrane starts to fall apart during the prophase.

  3. Chromosomes become clearly visible in the prophase.



Telophase -

  1. Mitochondria, ER, Golgi Complex, etc. reappear in the telophase.

  2. Nuclear membrane starts to integrate during the telophase.

  3. Chromosomes start to lose their visibility in this telophase.

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Question:2

What are the various stages of meiotic prophase-I? Enumerate the chromosomal events during each stage?

Answer:

These are the different stages of meiotic prophase:

(a) Leptotene: During the stage of leptotene, the chromosomes are slowly visible under a light microscope. The compression of chromosomes continues until the end of this stage. The sister chromatids which are tightly bound so that they cannot be differentiated from each other.

(b) Zygotene: Zygotene is the stage where the chromosomes start forming into pairs.This process of formation is called synapsis. Formation of synapsis goes along with the formation of synaptonemal complexes. Each pair formed in this process is called a bivalent or tetrad.

(c) Pachytene: In the stage of pachytene, the bivalent chromosomes get detached.Reconnection of the nodules starts to appear on the tetrads. The recombination nodule is the site at which the crossing over of the non-sister chromatid takes place. Crossing over happens between non-sister chromatids of the homologous chromosomes.Crossing over helps in the exchange of genes between two homologous chromosomes.

(d) Diplotene: In the stage of diplotene, the synaptonemal complex starts to break down. The reconnected chromosomes begin to segregate from each other. But they are connected at the site of crossing over. This makes an X-shaped structure called chiasmata.

(e) Diakinesis: In the Diakinesis stage, the Chiasmata is terminated. The nucleolus disappears in this process, and so does the nuclear membrane.

Question:3

Differentiate between the events of mitosis and meiosis.

Answer:

Events

Mitosis

Meiosis

Prophase

Prophase is shorter in duration. Chromosomes do not become segregated at this stage. Chromosomes show two distinct chromatids. No crossing over takes place during this stage. Prophase is simple and is not distinguishable into sub-stages.

Prophase–I is of longer duration, while prophase–II is of shorter duration. Chromosomes are quite distinct. Chromosomes of prophase–I do not show distinct chromatids. Chiasmata is formed, and crossing overtakes place.

Metaphase

A single metaphasic plate is formed during metaphase. Chromosomes are independent in this phase and do not show connections. Limbs of chromosomes are in different directions. Two chromatids of a chromosome are genetically similar.

Two metaphasic plates are formed during metaphase–I but a single metaphasic plate is formed during metaphase–II. The Homologous chromosomes are interconnected. Limbs of chromosomes point towards the center. The two chromatids of a chromosome are mostly genetically different.

Anaphase

Centromere splits along its length to form two centromeres during anaphase. Chromosomes are single stranded. Similar chromosomes move towards the opposite poles.

During anaphase–I, centromeres do not require segregation, but segregation of centromere takes place during anaphase–II. Double-stranded chromosomes are visible in anaphase–I, but during anaphase–II, single-stranded chromosomes are visible. Dissimilar chromosomes move towards the opposite poles.

Telophase

Telophase is of longer duration. It produces the interphase nuclei.

Telophase is shorter in case of meiosis.

Cytokinesis

Cytokinesis is a process that happens after every mitosis. Two daughter cells are formed at the end of this process.

Cytokinesis does not happen after meiosis–I but it happens after the second stage of meiosis. Four daughter cells are formed at the end of meiosis 2.


Question:4

Write a brief note on the following
(a) Synaptonemal complex
(b) Metaphase plate

Answer:

(a) Synaptonemal complex consists of protein. It is made between two homologous chromosomes in the process of meiosis. It is the site of matching, synapsis and recombination. During prophase–I of meiosis, the homologous chromosomes get matched through the synaptonemal complex. Through this complex, the exchange of genes takes place. Hence, reconnection or recombination of genetic characters happens through a synaptonemal complex.

(b) The metaphase plate is an imaginary line which is at equal distances from the two centrosome poles. During the process of metaphase, the chromosomes get together at the metaphase plate. The even alignment of chromosomes happens because of the facing kinetochore microtubules.

Question:5

Write briefly the significance of mitosis and meiosis in multicellular organisms.

Answer:
Significance of Mitosis:

Mitosis facilitates the development of single-cell zygote into a full-grown organism. It helps growth of an organism. It helps repair worn out or damaged tissues. It helps vegetative propagation in flowering plants. It helps regeneration in some animals.

Significance of Meiosis:

Meiosis makes sure that the number of chromosomes becomes diploid in gametes. This aids in making sure that the conservation of particular chromosomal numbers in species. Meiosis helps genetic variability in populations. This happens due to crossing over during prophase–I.

Question:6

An organism has two pairs of chromosomes (i.e., chromosome number = 4). Diagrammatically represent the chromosomal arrangement during different phases of meiosis-II.

Answer:

The following diagram shows different phases of meiosis—II of an organism which has two pairs of chromosomes.


NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 10 - Main Subtopics

  • Cell Cycle
  • Phases of cell cycle
  • M Phase
  • Prophase
  • Metaphase
  • Anaphase
  • Telophase
  • Cytokinesis
  • Significance of Mitosis
  • Meiosis
  • Meiosis I
  • Meiosis II
  • Significance of Meiosis

What will the students learn in NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 10?
Class 11 Biology NCERT exemplar solutions chapter 10 will provide a deeper insight into the functioning of their body and why it works the way it does. It covers all the important topics from the process of meiosis and mitosis to the significance of DNA and how it is replicated. It answers the questions that the students might have after knowing a part of it and also provides suitable, relevant diagrams of the same.

It is important to understand cell theory and cell division to understand biology better as the cell is the basic functional unit of life. Finding and knowing about different organisms have been easy ever since the concept of cell theory was developed by Theodor Schwann in 1839.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter-Wise

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 10 - Important Topics

  • Class 11 Biology NCERT exemplar solutions chapter 10 is important for both board exams and other competitive exams that a student might appear for. NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology solutions chapter 10 deals with the reason behind their growth and development of all living organisms.

  • Class 11 Biology NCERT exemplar solutions chapter 10 has detailed that Cell Cycle, phases of the cell cycle, M phases, mitosis, meiosis, and their significance are important topics which students should pay extra attention to.

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A block of mass 0.50 kg is moving with a speed of 2.00 ms-1 on a smooth surface. It strikes another mass of 1.00 kg and then they move together as a single body. The energy loss during the collision is

Option 1)

0.34\; J

Option 2)

0.16\; J

Option 3)

1.00\; J

Option 4)

0.67\; J

A person trying to lose weight by burning fat lifts a mass of 10 kg upto a height of 1 m 1000 times.  Assume that the potential energy lost each time he lowers the mass is dissipated.  How much fat will he use up considering the work done only when the weight is lifted up ?  Fat supplies 3.8×107 J of energy per kg which is converted to mechanical energy with a 20% efficiency rate.  Take g = 9.8 ms−2 :

Option 1)

2.45×10−3 kg

Option 2)

 6.45×10−3 kg

Option 3)

 9.89×10−3 kg

Option 4)

12.89×10−3 kg

 

An athlete in the olympic games covers a distance of 100 m in 10 s. His kinetic energy can be estimated to be in the range

Option 1)

2,000 \; J - 5,000\; J

Option 2)

200 \, \, J - 500 \, \, J

Option 3)

2\times 10^{5}J-3\times 10^{5}J

Option 4)

20,000 \, \, J - 50,000 \, \, J

A particle is projected at 600   to the horizontal with a kinetic energy K. The kinetic energy at the highest point

Option 1)

K/2\,

Option 2)

\; K\;

Option 3)

zero\;

Option 4)

K/4

In the reaction,

2Al_{(s)}+6HCL_{(aq)}\rightarrow 2Al^{3+}\, _{(aq)}+6Cl^{-}\, _{(aq)}+3H_{2(g)}

Option 1)

11.2\, L\, H_{2(g)}  at STP  is produced for every mole HCL_{(aq)}  consumed

Option 2)

6L\, HCl_{(aq)}  is consumed for ever 3L\, H_{2(g)}      produced

Option 3)

33.6 L\, H_{2(g)} is produced regardless of temperature and pressure for every mole Al that reacts

Option 4)

67.2\, L\, H_{2(g)} at STP is produced for every mole Al that reacts .

How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg_{3}(PO_{4})_{2} will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms?

Option 1)

0.02

Option 2)

3.125 × 10-2

Option 3)

1.25 × 10-2

Option 4)

2.5 × 10-2

If we consider that 1/6, in place of 1/12, mass of carbon atom is taken to be the relative atomic mass unit, the mass of one mole of a substance will

Option 1)

decrease twice

Option 2)

increase two fold

Option 3)

remain unchanged

Option 4)

be a function of the molecular mass of the substance.

With increase of temperature, which of these changes?

Option 1)

Molality

Option 2)

Weight fraction of solute

Option 3)

Fraction of solute present in water

Option 4)

Mole fraction.

Number of atoms in 558.5 gram Fe (at. wt.of Fe = 55.85 g mol-1) is

Option 1)

twice that in 60 g carbon

Option 2)

6.023 × 1022

Option 3)

half that in 8 g He

Option 4)

558.5 × 6.023 × 1023

A pulley of radius 2 m is rotated about its axis by a force F = (20t - 5t2) newton (where t is measured in seconds) applied tangentially. If the moment of inertia of the pulley about its axis of rotation is 10 kg m2 , the number of rotations made by the pulley before its direction of motion if reversed, is

Option 1)

less than 3

Option 2)

more than 3 but less than 6

Option 3)

more than 6 but less than 9

Option 4)

more than 9

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