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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Chemistry solutions chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties are prepared by the experts which will help the students to understand the classification of elements and periodicity in properties. NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Chemistry chapter 3 solutions revolve around the elements and periodicity. This chapter of NCERT Class 11 Chemistry Solutions deals with the complete classification of elements and periodicity in properties. NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Chemistry solutions chapter 3 will help the students to understand importance and the use of elements with the different examples. We have provided question-wise NCERT Exemplar solutions for Class 11 Chemistry chapter 3 which are much useful for practicing and preparing for the 12 board exams as well as for the JEE Main Exam.
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Question:1
Consider the isoelectronic species,
The correct order of increasing length of their radii is _________.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Answer:
The answer is the option (ii)
Explanation: All of them are isoelectronic species because they have the same number of valence electrons and moreover they even have the same number of electrons on the whole, which is 10. So, their radii would be different because of their different nuclear charges. The greater the charge in the cation greater is the force with which the nucleus pulls the electrons or greater is the force of attraction of electrons to the nucleus and thus will have a lesser radius. Whereas in case of anions greater is the charge lesser is the force of attraction thus will have the larger radius, and in this very case the net repulsion between the electrons will outweigh the nuclear charge, and the ion will thus expand in size.
Question:2
Which of the following is not an actinoid?
(i) Curium (Z = 96)
(ii) Californium (Z = 98)
(iii) Uranium (Z = 92)
(iv)Terbium (Z = 65)
Answer:
The answer is the option (iv) Terbium (Z = 65)
Explanation: Actinoids are the elements with Z= 90 to 103, and they are characterised by the outer electronic configuration . In an actinoid the last electron enters the f-orbital, and that is not the case in Terbium, and hence it is not an actinoid, but it is a lanthanoid.
Question:3
The order of screening effect of electrons of s, p, d and f orbitals of a given shell of an atom on its outer shell electrons is:
(i) s >p >d >f
(ii) f> d > p> s
(iii) p< d < s > f
(iv) f> p > s> d
Answer:
The answer is the option (i) s >p >d >f
Explanation: The valence electrons experience a shielding or screening effect from the nucleus because of the intervening core electrons, wherein the effective nuclear charge experienced by a valence electron in an atom will be less than the actual charge on the nucleus. Like the 2s electron in lithium is shielded from the nucleus by the inner core of 1s electrons.
Question:4
The first ionisation enthalpies of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order:
(i) Na < Mg > Al < Si
(ii) Na > Mg > Al > Si
(iii) Na < Mg < Al < Si
(iv) Na > Mg > Al < Si
Answer:
The answer is the option (i) Na < Mg > Al < Si
Explanation: While moving across the periods, the increasing nuclear charge overpowers the shielding effect. Consequently, the valence electrons are held more and more tightly and thus; the ionisation enthalpy increases across the period. In case of Mg, the valence electron is in the s-orbital which is a stable gas configuration, and penetration effect of s-subshell is more as compared to aluminium (Al) in which the outermost electron is in p-subshell.
Question:5
The electronic configuration of gadolinium (Atomic number 64) is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Answer:
The answer is the option (iii)
Explanation: Gadolinium is a lanthanoid, it is one of the f-block elements and has the outer electronic configuration as
Question:6
The statement that is not correct for periodic classification of elements is:
(i) The properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic numbers.
(ii) Non-metallic elements are less in number than metallic elements.
(iii) For transition elements, the 3d-orbitals are filled with electrons after 3p-orbitals and before 4s-orbitals.
(iv) The first ionisation enthalpies of elements generally increase with increase in atomic number as we go along a period.
Answer:
The answer is the option (iii) For transition elements; the 3d-orbitals are filled with electrons after 3p-orbitals and before 4s-orbitals.
Explanation: According to the Aufbau principle, the 3d-orbitals are filled after the 4s and before the 4p orbitals, as the energy of the 4s orbital is lesser than the 3d orbital.
Question:7
Among halogens, the correct order of amount of energy released in electron gain 3 (electron gain enthalpy) is:
(i) F > Cl > Br > I
(ii) F < Cl < Br < I
(iii) F < Cl > Br > I
(iv) F < Cl < Br < I
Answer:
The answer is the option (iii) F < Cl > Br > I
Explanation: Within the same group, electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative while going down in the group. However, with the addition of an electron to the 2p-orbital leads to greater repulsion than the addition of an electron to the larger 3p- orbital. Hence, in following halogens, chlorine is the element with the highest negative electron gain enthalpy.
Question:8
The period number in the long form of the periodic table is equal to
(i) magnetic quantum number of any element of the period.
(ii) atomic number of any element of the period.
(iii) maximum Principal quantum number of any element of the period.
(iv) maximum Azimuthal quantum number of any element of the period.
Answer:
The answer is the option (iii) maximum principal quantum number of any element of the period.
Explanation: The period indicates the value of n for the outermost or valence shell. Hence, Period Number= maximum n of any element, where n refers to a principal quantum number.
Question:9
The elements in which electrons are progressively filled in 4f-orbital are called
(i) Actinoids
(ii) Transition elements
(iii) Lanthanoids
(iv) Halogens
Answer:
The answer is the option (iii) Lanthanoids
Explanation: The sixth period (n = 6) contains 32 elements, and after that, the successive electrons enter the 6s, 4f, 5d and 6p orbitals and in that order, filling up of ff orbital begins with cerium (Z=58) and ends at Lutetium(Z=71). This complete 4f inner transition series is called the lanthanoid series.
Question:10
Which of the following is the correct order of size of the given species:
(i) I > I- > I+
(ii) I+ > I- > I
(iii) I > I+ > I-
(iv) I- > I > I+
Answer:
The answer is the option (iv) I- > I > I+
Explanation: A cation is always smaller in size than its parent atom because in case of cations there are fewer electrons in it than its parent atom, but the nuclear charge is same in both; thus there is a greater pull towards the nucleus thereby reducing the size of the cation. The opposite happens in case of an anion where the nuclear charge remains the same, but the number of electrons is increased by one or more than the parent atom, and this results into increased repulsions among electrons and thus causes a decrease in effective nuclear charge, and as a result, the size of the anion increases manifold.
Question:11
The formation of the oxide ion, , from oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as shown below: Thus process of formation of in gas phase is unfavourable even though is isoelectronic with neon. It is due to the fact that,
(i) oxygen is more electronegative.
(ii) addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size of the ion.
(iii) electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration.
(iv) O– ion has comparatively smaller size than oxygen atom.
Answer:
The answer is the option (iii) electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration.
Explanation: Energy is released whenever an electron is added to the O atom to form O- ion. Thus the first electron gain enthalpy of O is negative. Contrary to this whenever an electron is added to O- ion to form O2- ion, energy has to be given out in order to overcome the very strong electronic repulsions, and that is why the second gain enthalpy of O is positive.
Question:12
Answer:
The answer is the option (iii) d-block
Explanation: Lanthanoids are formed by the filling of the 4f-orbitals, and they are the elements following lanthanum from 58Ce to 71Lu. Actinoids formed by filling of 5f orbitals are the elements the following actinium from 90Th to 103Lr. The characteristic outer electronic configuration is as follows:
Question:12
Answer:
The answer is the option (iii)
Explanation: The sixth period, which is when n equals 6, contains 32 elements and the successive electrons enter the 6s, 4f, 5d and 6p orbitals. The last element in the p-block in 6th period is [86]Rn.
Question:12
The answer is the option (iii) 126
Explanation: In the present set up of the long form of the periodic table, there are seven periods and four blocks. So, the maximum number of elements according to the Aufbau principle, which can be accommodated in the present set up of the periodic table is 118.
Question:12
The answer is the option (i)
Explanation: The atomic number of the element which lies just above the element with atomic number 43 is 25 (Mn) or manganese. Its electronic configuration is .
Question:12
The answer is the option (ii) halogens
Explanation: The elements with atomic numbers 35, 53 and 85 are in the group before noble gases which are the halogens (group 17).
Question:13
Electronic configurations of four elements A, B, C and D, are given below :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Which of the following is the correct order of increasing tendency to gain electron ?
(i) A < C < B < D
(ii) A < B < C < D
(iii) D < B < C < A
(iv) D < A < B < C
Answer:
The answer is the option (i) A < C < B < D
Explanation: Electron Gain Enthalpy: When an isolated gaseous atom or ion in its ground state adds an electron to form the corresponding anion, then the molar enthaly change that occurs is known as Electron Gain Enthalpy.
Question:14
Which of the following elements can show covalency greater than 4?
(i) Be
(ii) P
(iii) S
(iv) B
Answer:
The answer is the option (ii) and (iii)
Explanation: Both P and S have vacant d-orbitals in their atoms; that is why they are able to extend their covalency.
Question:15
Those elements impart colour to the flame on heating in it, the atoms of which require low energy for the ionisation (i.e., absorb energy in the visible region of the spectrum). The elements of which of the following groups will impart colour to the flame?
(i) 2
(ii) 13
(iii) 1
(iv) 17
Answer:
The answer is the option (i) and (iii)
Explanation: Group I that is the alkali metals group and Group II elements are the alkaline earth metals, they are reactive metals with low ionisation enthalpies.
Question:16
Which of the following sequences contain atomic numbers of only representative elements?
(i) 3, 33, 53, 87
(ii) 2, 10, 22, 36
(iii) 7, 17, 25, 37, 48
(iv) 9, 35, 51, 88
Answer:
The answer is the option (i) and (iv)
Explanation: The p-Block elements comprise the elements belonging to Group 13 to 18 and these together with the s-Block elements are called the Representative Elements or Main Group Elements and only options (i) and (iv) belong to s and p block.
Question:17
Which of the following elements will gain one electron more readily in comparison to other elements of their group?
(i) S (g)
(ii) Na (g)
(iii) O (g)
(iv) Cl (g)
Answer:
The answer is the option (i) and (iv)
Explanation: There are many elements where energy is released when an electron is added to the atom of those elements, thereby the electron gain enthalpy being negative for such elements. For example, the group 17 elements which are the halogens have extremely high negative electron gain enthalpies because they can attain stable noble gas electronic configurations by picking up an electron.
Question:18
Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Helium has the highest first ionisation enthalpy in the periodic table.
(ii) Chlorine has less negative electron gain enthalpy than fluorine.
(iii) Mercury and bromine are liquids at room temperature.
(iv) In any period, the atomic radius of alkali metal is the highest.
Answer:
The answer is the option (i), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation: Helium is the smallest noble gas, and that is the reason why it has the highest ionisation enthalpy.
Question:19
Which of the following sets contain only isoelectronic ions?
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Answer:
The answer is the option (ii) and (iii)
Explanation: Isoelectronic species are those species which because have the same number of electrons.
Question:20
In which of the following options order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?
(i) Al3+< Mg2+< Na+ < F– (increasing ionic size)
(ii) B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
(iii) I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
(iv) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
Answer:
The answer is the option (ii) and (iii)
Explanation: The ionisation enthalpy of N is always higher than that of O due to greater stability of half-filled electronic configuration of oxygen. So (ii) is incorrect. Similarly, in option (iii), the electron gain enthalpy of F is lower than that of Cl due to the small size of F. Hence option (iii) is also wrong.
Question:21
Which of the following have no unit?
(i) Electronegativity
(ii) Electron gain enthalpy
(iii) Ionisation enthalpy
(iv) Metallic character
Answer:
The answer is the option (i) and (iv)
Explanation: Electronegativity of an element is the tendency of an atom of that element to attract shared electrons towards itself, and unlike ionisation enthalpy and electron gain enthalpy, it is not a measurable quantity.
Question:22
Ionic radii vary in
(i) inverse proportion to the effective nuclear charge.
(ii) inverse proportion to the square of effective nuclear charge.
(iii) direct proportion to the screening effect.
(iv) direct proportion to the square of screening effect.
Answer:
The answer is the option (i) and (iii)
Explanation: A cation is always smaller in size than its parent atom because in case of cations there are fewer electrons in it than its parent atom, but the nuclear charge is same in both; thus there is a greater pull towards the nucleus thereby reducing the size of the cation. The opposite happens in case of an anion where the nuclear charge remains the same, but the number of electrons is increased by one or more than the parent atom, and this results into increased repulsions among electrons and thus causes a decrease in effective nuclear charge, and as a result, the size of the anion increases manifold.
Question:23
An element belongs to the 3rd period and group-13 of the periodic table. Which of the following properties will be shown by the element?
(i) Good conductor of electricity
(ii) Liquid, metallic
(iii) Solid, metallic
(iv) Solid, non-metallic
Answer:
The answer is the option (i) and (iii)
Explanation: Group-13 third period element is Aluminum which is a metal which is solid, metallic and a good conductor of electricity.
Question:24
Explain why the electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less negative than that of chlorine.
Answer:
The added electron in fluorine atom goes to the second quantum level, and due to very small size of fluorine, it experiences repulsion from other electrons much more in comparison to that in chlorine because in chlorine, the electron is added to 3rd quantum level and chlorine, on the other hand, is not that small, so it experiences a much lower repulsion.
Question:25
Zn, Cd and Hg which have the electronic configuration, (n-1) d10 ns2 do not show most of the properties of transition elements. Transition metals form a bridge between the chemically active metals of s-block elements and the less active elements of Groups 13 and 14.
Question:26
Group: 1, Valency: 1
Outermost electronic configuration = 8s1
Formula of Oxide = M2O
Question:28
(i) Moving along a period, ionisation enthalpy increases and moving down a group ionisation enthalpy decreases. Therefore, C or Carbon has the highest first ionisation enthalpy.
(ii) The metallic character increases while moving down the group and decrease along a period, so, Al has the most metallic character.
Question:29
Write four characteristic properties of p-block elements.
Answer:
(i) p-Block elements include both metals and non-metals.
(ii) p-Block elements, in most cases, form covalent bonds with other elements.
(iii) The ionisation enthalpies are relatively higher than s-block elements.
(iv) Some of the p-block elements show variable or more than one oxidation states.
Question:30
Choose the correct order of atomic radii of fluorine and neon (in pm) out of the options given below and justify your answer.
(i) 72, 160
(ii) 160, 160
(iii) 72, 72
(iv) 160, 72
Answer:
The answer is the option (i) 72, 160
Explanation: The atomic size generally decreases across a period for the elements of the second period because within one period there are the same number of shells in all the elements within that period but the nuclear charge increases while going along the period and hence the electrons in the shells are attracted more towards the nucleus thereby reducing the atomic radii.
Question:31
The oxidation state of an element is basically the charge acquired by its atom or appears to have when it is present in the combined state with other atoms. For transition elements, there are variable oxidation states due to the presence of both valence electrons and the d-electrons. Most common oxidation states are +2 and +3. Titanium shows three oxidation states +2, +3, +4. In the case of non-transition elements, the value of oxidation state is equal to a number of electrons in the outermost shell or 8 minus the number of electrons in the outermost shell.
Question:32
Answer:
In the nitrogen atom, the three 2p-electrons reside in different atomic orbitals according to the Hund's rule whereas, in the oxygen atom, two of the four 2p-electrons must occupy the same 2p-orbital resulting in an increased electron-electron repulsion.Oxygen has lower ionisation enthalpy than nitrogen because by removing one electron from 2p-orbital, oxygen acquires stable configuration, i.e., 2p3. On the other hand, in case of nitrogen it is not easy to remove one of the three 2p-electrons due to its stable configuration
Question:33
Answer:
Anomalous Properties of Second Period Elements: The anomalous behaviour is because of their small size, large charge/radius ratio, high electronegativity, and non-availability of d-orbitals in their valence shell.
example:
1.Compounds of lithium have significant covalent character. whereas compounds of other alkali metals are predominantly ionic.
2. In p-block elements, first member of each groups has four orbitals, one 2s-orbital and three 2p-orbitals it their valence shel.. So, these elements show a maximum covalency of four while othe member of the same group or different groups show a maximum covalency beyond four due to availability of vacant-d-orbitals.
Question:34
The oxides of p-block elements show acidic, basic and amphoteric properties, due to the following factors:
Ionisation enthalpy: Higher the ionisation enthalpy of an element, stronger will be the acid formed by that element. If ionisation enthalpy of an element is high, then its oxide will be acidic in nature, if low, then it will be basic in nature, and if intermediate, its oxide will be amphoteric in nature.
Electronegativity: Higher the electronegativity of the element, more acidic is its oxide. For instance, is more acidic than
Oxidation states: Higher the oxidation state of the elements; stronger will be its acid. For instance, is a stronger acid than
Reaction with water
Boron Trioxide Orthoboric acid
is amphoteric in nature. It is insoluble in water but dissolves in alkalies and reacts with acids.
Aluminium trioxide Sodium meta aluminate
Aluminium Chloride
is as basic as due to its lower oxidation state (+1).
Question:35
The first ionisation enthalpy of magnesium is higher than that of Na due to the higher nuclear charge and slightly smaller atomic radius of Mg than Na. After the loss of the first electron, Na+ formed has the electronic configuration of neon (2,8) which means it becomes highly stable because of achieving the nearest noble gas configuration and its quite clear that higher the stability more energy is required to remove an electron; thus more is the ionisation enthalpy. The higher stability of the completely filled noble gas configuration leads to very high second ionisation enthalpy for sodium. On the other hand, Mg+ formed after losing the first electron still has one more electron in its outermost (3s) orbital. As a result, the second ionisation enthalpy of magnesium is much smaller than that of sodium.
Question:36
Exothermic Reaction : is negative for reactions which heat evolves during the reaction and are called exothermic. Example:
This reaction leads to the release of -178.3 kJ mol-1 of energy and is an exothermic reaction as is negative.
Endothermic Reaction : is positive in an endothermic reaction which absorbs heat from the surroundings
Example:
This reactions requires the energy of +91.8 kJ mol-1 and is an endothermic one because is positive.
Question:37
(i) S < P < N < O
(ii) P < S < N < O
The ionisation enthalpy increases on moving from left to right in a period, and similarly Non-metallic character increases while moving from left to right across the period.
Question:38
Answer:
First ionisation enthalpy increases while moving along a period because as the nuclear charge increases while moving along the period. There is deviation of ionisation enthalpy of some elements from the general trend as shown in figure. The first ionisation enthalpy of B is lower than that of Be due to filled s-orbital in Be and in case of nitrogen, the first ionisation enthalpy is higher than that of O due to half-filled stability.
Question:39
(a) Electronegativity of an element is the tendency of an atom of that element to attract shared electrons towards itself, and unlike ionisation enthalpy and electron gain enthalpy, it is not a measurable quantity. The increase in electronegativities across a period is due to decrease in size of atom and increase in nuclear charge.
(b) As we go down a group, the outermost electron is increasingly becomes far from the nucleus, and there is an Increase in atomic size. Therefore, ionisation enthalpy decreases down the group.
Question:40
How does the metallic and non-metallic character vary on moving from left to right in a period?
Answer:
Metallic character: The tendency of an element to lose electrons and thereby forming positive ions is called electropositive or metallic character. The elements with lower ionisation energies have a higher tendency to lose electrons; thus, they are electropositive or metallic in their behaviour.
Periodicity: In period, the electropositive or metallic character decreases from left to right in a period. In a group, the electropositive or metallic character increases from top to bottom in a group.
Non-metallic character: The tendency of an element to accept electrons to form an anion is called its non-metallic or electronegative character.
Periodicity: (i) In period: The electronegative or non-metallic character increases while going from left to right in a period.
(ii) In group: The electronegative or non-metallic character decreases while going from top to bottom in a group.
Question:41
The radius of Na+ cation is less than that of Na atom. Give reason.
Answer:
The radius of Na+ cation is less than that of Na atom because of the decrease of one shell, also there is a greater pull towards the nucleus thereby reducing the size of the cation.
Question:42
Among alkali metals which element do you expect to be least electronegative and why?
Answer:
Electronegativity decreases in a group from top to bottom, and thereby caesium is the least electronegative element.
Question:43
Match the correct atomic radius with the element.
Element | Atomic radius (pm) |
Be | 74 |
C | 88 |
O | 111 |
B | 77 |
N | 66 |
Answer:
Be = 111, O = 66, C = 77, B = 88, N = 74.
Question:44
Match the correct ionisation enthalpies and electron gain enthalpies of the following elements.
Elements | |||
(i) Most reactive non metal | A.419 | 3051 | -48 |
(ii) Most reactive metal | B.1681 | 3374 | -328 |
(iii) Least reactive element | C.738 | 1451 | -40 |
(iv) Metal forming binary halide | D.2372 | 5251 | +48 |
Answer:
Most reactive non metal = B, Most reactive metal = A, Least reactive element = D, Metal forming binary halide = C
Question:45
Column (I) Electronic configuration | Column (II) Electron gain enthalpy / kJ mol -1 |
(i) | (A) -53 |
(ii) | (B) -328 |
(iii) | (C) -141 |
(iv) | (D) +48 |
Answer:(i) →(d); (ii) →(a); (iii) →(b); (iv) →(c)
Question:46
Assertion is correct statement and reason is wrong statement.
Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.
Assertion is wrong statement and reason is correct statement
Answer:
The answer is the option (ii) Assertion, and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
Explanation: Ionisation enthalpy depends upon the nuclear force which attracts electrons and on the repulsion of electrons from one another.
Question:47
Assertion and reason both are correct statements, but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
Assertion is correct statement, but reason is wrong statement.
Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for the assertion.
Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.
Answer:
The answer is the option (iii) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for the assertion.
Explanation: During ionisation, the electron removed in case of beryllium is from the s-orbital and the electron removed from the boron atom is from the p-orbital, and the penetration of 2s electron to the nucleus is more than that of 2p electron hence 2p electron of boron is more shielded from the nucleus than the 2s electron.
Question:48
Assertion and reason both are correct statements, but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.
Assertion is wrong statement, but reason is correct statement.
Answer:
The answer is the option (iv) Assertion is wrong statement, but reason is correct statement.
Explanation: Electron gain enthalpy does not always become less negative as we go down a group in Modern periodic table.
Ex. ΔHeg(2pseries)<ΔHeg(3pseries)
Question:49
Factors Affecting Electron Gain Enthalpy:
Nuclear charge: As nuclear charge increases the gain enthalpy becomes more negative.
Size of the atom: As nuclear charge increases, the gain enthalpy becomes less negative.
Electronic configuration: Electron gain enthalpy is less negative for elements which have a stable, half-filled or completely filled electronic configuration.
Trends in variation in the periodic table:
In period: The electron gain enthalpy increases from left to right in a period.
In group: The electron gain enthalpy decreases from top to bottom in a group.
Question:50
Ionisation Enthalpy: It is the change in the molar enthalpy when an electron is removed from a gaseous phase atom in its ground state.
Factors on which Ionisation Enthalpy Depends:
(i) Size of the atom: The larger the atomic size, smaller is the value of ionisation enthalpy. In a larger atom, the outer electrons are far away from the nucleus and thus force of attraction with which they are attracted by the nucleus is less and hence can be easily removed.
(ii) Screening effect: Higher the screening effect, the lesser is the value of ionisation enthalpy as the screening effect reduces the force of attraction towards nucleus and hence the outer electrons can be easily removed.
(iii) Nuclear charge: As the nuclear charge increases among atoms having same number of energy shells, the ionisation enthalpy increases because the force of attraction towards nucleus increases.
(iv) Half filled and fully filled orbitals: The atoms having half filled and fully filled orbitals are comparatively more stable, hence more energy is required to remove the electron from such atoms. The ionization enthalpy is rather higher than the expected value in case of such an atom.
(v) Shape of orbital: The s-orbital is more close to nucleus than the p-orbital of the same orbit. Thus, it is easier to remove electron from a p-orbital in comparison to s-orbital. In general, the ionisation enthalpy follows the following order
(s>p> d>f) orbitals of the same orbit.
Variation of ionisation enthalpy in the periodic table
ln general, the ionisation energy decreases down the group due to increase in atomic size. Whereas, the ionisation energy increases across the period from left to right, again due to decrease in atomic size from left to right.
Question:51
The physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of the atomic numbers means that chemical and physical properties repeat after a regular interval. Elements having similar outer electronic configurations in their atoms are arranged in vertical columns, referred to as groups or families.
Question:52
All the elments of Alkali metals have the similar outer electronic configuration, i.e. ns1 where n refers to the number of principle shell. These electronic configuration are given below.
Hence, placement of all the elements in group 1 of the periodic table because of similarity in electronic configuration and all the elements have similar properties.
Question:53
Write the drawbacks in Mendeleev's periodic table that led to its modification.
Answer:
Following are the drawbacks in Mendeleev's periodic table: -
Hydrogen's position-
Hydrogen resembled the properties of both alkali metals(like lithium) and also that of halogens(like iodine). Hence, the position of hydrogen(whether hydrogen is to be placed with halogens or alkali metals) was not specified.
Position for Isotopes-
Mendeleev's periodic table was based on arranging elements in increasing order of atomic masses. But isotopes were not included in his periodic table.
Certain elements were arranged in reverse order. Elements having higher atomic mass were placed in front(or before) the elements with less atomic mass. Example - Cobalt and Nickel
Cobalt being more heavier than Nickel ,was placed before Nickel , in the Mendeleev's periodic table.
Several gaps were left in the periodic table as he believed that several elements are yet to be discovered. For instance – Gallium was not discovered at that time.
Position of VIII Group is inappropriate.
Question:54
Modern Periodic Table is better than Mendeleev's periodic table because:
This table is based on the atomic number, which makes it more accurate.
There is a correlation between the position of the elements and their electron configurations clearly.
Complete separation of metals and non-metals has been achieved.
It eliminates the even and odd series of IV, V, VI and VII periods of Mendeleev's table.
Position of VIII Group is more appropriate than before.
Question:55
Ionisation Enthalpy is defined as the change in the molar enthalpy when an atom loses an electron.
Factors Affecting Ionisation enthalpy:
Nuclear charge: As nuclear charge increases the Ionisation Enthalpy increases.
Size of the atom: As nuclear charge increases the Ionisation Enthalpy becomes less.
When one moves from lithium to fluorine across the second period, successive electrons are added to orbitals in the same principal quantum number, and the shielding of the nuclear charge by the inner core of electrons does not increase very much. Thus, across a period, increasing nuclear charge outweighs the shielding. Consequently, the outermost electrons are held more and more tightly, and the ionisation enthalpy increases across a period.
As one goes down a group, the outermost electron being increasingly farther from the nucleus, there is an increased shielding of the nuclear charge by the electrons in the inner levels. So ionisation enthalpy decreases down the group.
To allow the students convenience of when and where to study students can utilise the NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Chemistry solutions chapter 3 PDF download feature to download the pdf version of the solutions which is prepared by the experts after they study the concepts thoroughly.
Main subtopics in NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Chemistry solutions chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Why Do We Need to Classify Elements?
Genesis of Periodic Classification
Modern Periodic Law and The Present Form of The Periodic Table
Nomenclature of Elements with Atomic Numbers > 100
Electronic Configurations of Elements and The Periodic Table
Electronic Configurations and Types of Elements: 5-, P-, D-, F- Blocks Ex
The S-block Elements
The P-block Elements
The D-block Elements (Transition Elements)
The F-block Elements (Inner-transition Elements)
Metals, Nonmetals and Metalloids
Periodic Trends in Properties of Elements
Trends in Physical Properties
Periodic Trends in Chemical Properties
Periodic Trends and Chemical Reactivity.
Knowledge related to the classification of elements and the periodicity in properties will be made available to the students through the Class 11 NCERT Exemplar solutions chapter 3. This will also enlighten the students to learn more about the different classifications that are used and its importance. NCERT Exemplar solutions for Class 11 Chemistry chapter 1 also provide student-friendly and comprehensive learning for the students.
The concepts given in NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Chemistry solutions chapter 3 focus more on the approaches that are followed in the preparations of the solutions of the questions. This lesson also provides with the information of the organization of elements in the periodic table that are used to simplify and systemize the study of properties of all the elements and millions of the compounds.
NCERT exemplar Class 11 Chemistry chapter 3 solutions helps students to develop basic knowledge and also makes them aware of the different uses of elements and the periodicity. The students will be able to relate the concepts in the different aspects of their lives.
Some of the important topics students must cover from this chapter for exams are:
NCERT Exemplar solutions for Class 11 Chemistry chapter 3 focuses on the different concepts and includes all the crucial topics with detailed explanations and how it will help the students to learn how to answer questions efficiently.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Chemistry solutions chapter 3 also covers different concepts of grouping elements together as per their similar properties which will lead to the development of periodic tables.
Chapter-1 - Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Chapter-2 - Structure of Atom
Chapter-3 - Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Chapter-4 - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Chapter-5 - States of Matter
Chapter-6 - Thermodynamics
Chapter-7 - Equilibrium
Chapter-8 - Redox Reaction
Chapter-9 - Hydrogen
Chapter-10 - The S-Block Elements
Chapter-11 - The P-Block Elements
Chapter-12 - Organic chemistry- some basic principles and techniques
Chapter-14 - Hydrocarbons
Chapter-15 - Environmental Chemistry
Read more NCERT Solution subject wise -
Also, read NCERT Notes subject wise -
Also Check NCERT Books and NCERT Syllabus here:
There are a total of 40 questions from the Chemistry Chapter 3 that are solved in detail and the precise manner in the NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 3.
The class 11 chemistry NCERT exemplar solutions chapter 3 can be downloaded from the website and the solutions can also be downloaded directly in the PDF format from the page.
Solving these questions will help the students in getting a basic idea about the questions and how to solve those in the examination.
Database professionals use software to store and organise data such as financial information, and customer shipping records. Individuals who opt for a career as data administrators ensure that data is available for users and secured from unauthorised sales. DB administrators may work in various types of industries. It may involve computer systems design, service firms, insurance companies, banks and hospitals.
The field of biomedical engineering opens up a universe of expert chances. An Individual in the biomedical engineering career path work in the field of engineering as well as medicine, in order to find out solutions to common problems of the two fields. The biomedical engineering job opportunities are to collaborate with doctors and researchers to develop medical systems, equipment, or devices that can solve clinical problems. Here we will be discussing jobs after biomedical engineering, how to get a job in biomedical engineering, biomedical engineering scope, and salary.
A career as ethical hacker involves various challenges and provides lucrative opportunities in the digital era where every giant business and startup owns its cyberspace on the world wide web. Individuals in the ethical hacker career path try to find the vulnerabilities in the cyber system to get its authority. If he or she succeeds in it then he or she gets its illegal authority. Individuals in the ethical hacker career path then steal information or delete the file that could affect the business, functioning, or services of the organization.
GIS officer work on various GIS software to conduct a study and gather spatial and non-spatial information. GIS experts update the GIS data and maintain it. The databases include aerial or satellite imagery, latitudinal and longitudinal coordinates, and manually digitized images of maps. In a career as GIS expert, one is responsible for creating online and mobile maps.
The invention of the database has given fresh breath to the people involved in the data analytics career path. Analysis refers to splitting up a whole into its individual components for individual analysis. Data analysis is a method through which raw data are processed and transformed into information that would be beneficial for user strategic thinking.
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Individuals who opt for a career as geothermal engineers are the professionals involved in the processing of geothermal energy. The responsibilities of geothermal engineers may vary depending on the workplace location. Those who work in fields design facilities to process and distribute geothermal energy. They oversee the functioning of machinery used in the field.
If you are intrigued by the programming world and are interested in developing communications networks then a career as database architect may be a good option for you. Data architect roles and responsibilities include building design models for data communication networks. Wide Area Networks (WANs), local area networks (LANs), and intranets are included in the database networks. It is expected that database architects will have in-depth knowledge of a company's business to develop a network to fulfil the requirements of the organisation. Stay tuned as we look at the larger picture and give you more information on what is db architecture, why you should pursue database architecture, what to expect from such a degree and what your job opportunities will be after graduation. Here, we will be discussing how to become a data architect. Students can visit NIT Trichy, IIT Kharagpur, JMI New Delhi.
Individuals who opt for a career as a remote sensing technician possess unique personalities. Remote sensing analysts seem to be rational human beings, they are strong, independent, persistent, sincere, realistic and resourceful. Some of them are analytical as well, which means they are intelligent, introspective and inquisitive.
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Budget analysis, in a nutshell, entails thoroughly analyzing the details of a financial budget. The budget analysis aims to better understand and manage revenue. Budget analysts assist in the achievement of financial targets, the preservation of profitability, and the pursuit of long-term growth for a business. Budget analysts generally have a bachelor's degree in accounting, finance, economics, or a closely related field. Knowledge of Financial Management is of prime importance in this career.
The invention of the database has given fresh breath to the people involved in the data analytics career path. Analysis refers to splitting up a whole into its individual components for individual analysis. Data analysis is a method through which raw data are processed and transformed into information that would be beneficial for user strategic thinking.
Data are collected and examined to respond to questions, evaluate hypotheses or contradict theories. It is a tool for analyzing, transforming, modeling, and arranging data with useful knowledge, to assist in decision-making and methods, encompassing various strategies, and is used in different fields of business, research, and social science.
An underwriter is a person who assesses and evaluates the risk of insurance in his or her field like mortgage, loan, health policy, investment, and so on and so forth. The underwriter career path does involve risks as analysing the risks means finding out if there is a way for the insurance underwriter jobs to recover the money from its clients. If the risk turns out to be too much for the company then in the future it is an underwriter who will be held accountable for it. Therefore, one must carry out his or her job with a lot of attention and diligence.
A Product Manager is a professional responsible for product planning and marketing. He or she manages the product throughout the Product Life Cycle, gathering and prioritising the product. A product manager job description includes defining the product vision and working closely with team members of other departments to deliver winning products.
Individuals in the operations manager jobs are responsible for ensuring the efficiency of each department to acquire its optimal goal. They plan the use of resources and distribution of materials. The operations manager's job description includes managing budgets, negotiating contracts, and performing administrative tasks.
Individuals who opt for a career as a stock analyst examine the company's investments makes decisions and keep track of financial securities. The nature of such investments will differ from one business to the next. Individuals in the stock analyst career use data mining to forecast a company's profits and revenues, advise clients on whether to buy or sell, participate in seminars, and discussing financial matters with executives and evaluate annual reports.
A Researcher is a professional who is responsible for collecting data and information by reviewing the literature and conducting experiments and surveys. He or she uses various methodological processes to provide accurate data and information that is utilised by academicians and other industry professionals. Here, we will discuss what is a researcher, the researcher's salary, types of researchers.
Welding Engineer Job Description: A Welding Engineer work involves managing welding projects and supervising welding teams. He or she is responsible for reviewing welding procedures, processes and documentation. A career as Welding Engineer involves conducting failure analyses and causes on welding issues.
A career as Transportation Planner requires technical application of science and technology in engineering, particularly the concepts, equipment and technologies involved in the production of products and services. In fields like land use, infrastructure review, ecological standards and street design, he or she considers issues of health, environment and performance. A Transportation Planner assigns resources for implementing and designing programmes. He or she is responsible for assessing needs, preparing plans and forecasts and compliance with regulations.
Individuals who opt for a career as an environmental engineer are construction professionals who utilise the skills and knowledge of biology, soil science, chemistry and the concept of engineering to design and develop projects that serve as solutions to various environmental problems.
A Safety Manager is a professional responsible for employee’s safety at work. He or she plans, implements and oversees the company’s employee safety. A Safety Manager ensures compliance and adherence to Occupational Health and Safety (OHS) guidelines.
A Conservation Architect is a professional responsible for conserving and restoring buildings or monuments having a historic value. He or she applies techniques to document and stabilise the object’s state without any further damage. A Conservation Architect restores the monuments and heritage buildings to bring them back to their original state.
A Structural Engineer designs buildings, bridges, and other related structures. He or she analyzes the structures and makes sure the structures are strong enough to be used by the people. A career as a Structural Engineer requires working in the construction process. It comes under the civil engineering discipline. A Structure Engineer creates structural models with the help of computer-aided design software.
Highway Engineer Job Description: A Highway Engineer is a civil engineer who specialises in planning and building thousands of miles of roads that support connectivity and allow transportation across the country. He or she ensures that traffic management schemes are effectively planned concerning economic sustainability and successful implementation.
Are you searching for a Field Surveyor Job Description? A Field Surveyor is a professional responsible for conducting field surveys for various places or geographical conditions. He or she collects the required data and information as per the instructions given by senior officials.
Orthotists and Prosthetists are professionals who provide aid to patients with disabilities. They fix them to artificial limbs (prosthetics) and help them to regain stability. There are times when people lose their limbs in an accident. In some other occasions, they are born without a limb or orthopaedic impairment. Orthotists and prosthetists play a crucial role in their lives with fixing them to assistive devices and provide mobility.
A career in pathology in India is filled with several responsibilities as it is a medical branch and affects human lives. The demand for pathologists has been increasing over the past few years as people are getting more aware of different diseases. Not only that, but an increase in population and lifestyle changes have also contributed to the increase in a pathologist’s demand. The pathology careers provide an extremely huge number of opportunities and if you want to be a part of the medical field you can consider being a pathologist. If you want to know more about a career in pathology in India then continue reading this article.
Gynaecology can be defined as the study of the female body. The job outlook for gynaecology is excellent since there is evergreen demand for one because of their responsibility of dealing with not only women’s health but also fertility and pregnancy issues. Although most women prefer to have a women obstetrician gynaecologist as their doctor, men also explore a career as a gynaecologist and there are ample amounts of male doctors in the field who are gynaecologists and aid women during delivery and childbirth.
The audiologist career involves audiology professionals who are responsible to treat hearing loss and proactively preventing the relevant damage. Individuals who opt for a career as an audiologist use various testing strategies with the aim to determine if someone has a normal sensitivity to sounds or not. After the identification of hearing loss, a hearing doctor is required to determine which sections of the hearing are affected, to what extent they are affected, and where the wound causing the hearing loss is found. As soon as the hearing loss is identified, the patients are provided with recommendations for interventions and rehabilitation such as hearing aids, cochlear implants, and appropriate medical referrals. While audiology is a branch of science that studies and researches hearing, balance, and related disorders.
An oncologist is a specialised doctor responsible for providing medical care to patients diagnosed with cancer. He or she uses several therapies to control the cancer and its effect on the human body such as chemotherapy, immunotherapy, radiation therapy and biopsy. An oncologist designs a treatment plan based on a pathology report after diagnosing the type of cancer and where it is spreading inside the body.
Are you searching for an ‘Anatomist job description’? An Anatomist is a research professional who applies the laws of biological science to determine the ability of bodies of various living organisms including animals and humans to regenerate the damaged or destroyed organs. If you want to know what does an anatomist do, then read the entire article, where we will answer all your questions.
For an individual who opts for a career as an actor, the primary responsibility is to completely speak to the character he or she is playing and to persuade the crowd that the character is genuine by connecting with them and bringing them into the story. This applies to significant roles and littler parts, as all roles join to make an effective creation. Here in this article, we will discuss how to become an actor in India, actor exams, actor salary in India, and actor jobs.
Individuals who opt for a career as acrobats create and direct original routines for themselves, in addition to developing interpretations of existing routines. The work of circus acrobats can be seen in a variety of performance settings, including circus, reality shows, sports events like the Olympics, movies and commercials. Individuals who opt for a career as acrobats must be prepared to face rejections and intermittent periods of work. The creativity of acrobats may extend to other aspects of the performance. For example, acrobats in the circus may work with gym trainers, celebrities or collaborate with other professionals to enhance such performance elements as costume and or maybe at the teaching end of the career.
Career as a video game designer is filled with excitement as well as responsibilities. A video game designer is someone who is involved in the process of creating a game from day one. He or she is responsible for fulfilling duties like designing the character of the game, the several levels involved, plot, art and similar other elements. Individuals who opt for a career as a video game designer may also write the codes for the game using different programming languages.
Depending on the video game designer job description and experience they may also have to lead a team and do the early testing of the game in order to suggest changes and find loopholes.
Radio Jockey is an exciting, promising career and a great challenge for music lovers. If you are really interested in a career as radio jockey, then it is very important for an RJ to have an automatic, fun, and friendly personality. If you want to get a job done in this field, a strong command of the language and a good voice are always good things. Apart from this, in order to be a good radio jockey, you will also listen to good radio jockeys so that you can understand their style and later make your own by practicing.
A career as radio jockey has a lot to offer to deserving candidates. If you want to know more about a career as radio jockey, and how to become a radio jockey then continue reading the article.
The word “choreography" actually comes from Greek words that mean “dance writing." Individuals who opt for a career as a choreographer create and direct original dances, in addition to developing interpretations of existing dances. A Choreographer dances and utilises his or her creativity in other aspects of dance performance. For example, he or she may work with the music director to select music or collaborate with other famous choreographers to enhance such performance elements as lighting, costume and set design.
A career as social media manager involves implementing the company’s or brand’s marketing plan across all social media channels. Social media managers help in building or improving a brand’s or a company’s website traffic, build brand awareness, create and implement marketing and brand strategy. Social media managers are key to important social communication as well.
Photography is considered both a science and an art, an artistic means of expression in which the camera replaces the pen. In a career as a photographer, an individual is hired to capture the moments of public and private events, such as press conferences or weddings, or may also work inside a studio, where people go to get their picture clicked. Photography is divided into many streams each generating numerous career opportunities in photography. With the boom in advertising, media, and the fashion industry, photography has emerged as a lucrative and thrilling career option for many Indian youths.
An individual who is pursuing a career as a producer is responsible for managing the business aspects of production. They are involved in each aspect of production from its inception to deception. Famous movie producers review the script, recommend changes and visualise the story.
They are responsible for overseeing the finance involved in the project and distributing the film for broadcasting on various platforms. A career as a producer is quite fulfilling as well as exhaustive in terms of playing different roles in order for a production to be successful. Famous movie producers are responsible for hiring creative and technical personnel on contract basis.
In a career as a copywriter, one has to consult with the client and understand the brief well. A career as a copywriter has a lot to offer to deserving candidates. Several new mediums of advertising are opening therefore making it a lucrative career choice. Students can pursue various copywriter courses such as Journalism, Advertising, Marketing Management. Here, we have discussed how to become a freelance copywriter, copywriter career path, how to become a copywriter in India, and copywriting career outlook.
In a career as a vlogger, one generally works for himself or herself. However, once an individual has gained viewership there are several brands and companies that approach them for paid collaboration. It is one of those fields where an individual can earn well while following his or her passion.
Ever since internet costs got reduced the viewership for these types of content has increased on a large scale. Therefore, a career as a vlogger has a lot to offer. If you want to know more about the Vlogger eligibility, roles and responsibilities then continue reading the article.
For publishing books, newspapers, magazines and digital material, editorial and commercial strategies are set by publishers. Individuals in publishing career paths make choices about the markets their businesses will reach and the type of content that their audience will be served. Individuals in book publisher careers collaborate with editorial staff, designers, authors, and freelance contributors who develop and manage the creation of content.
Careers in journalism are filled with excitement as well as responsibilities. One cannot afford to miss out on the details. As it is the small details that provide insights into a story. Depending on those insights a journalist goes about writing a news article. A journalism career can be stressful at times but if you are someone who is passionate about it then it is the right choice for you. If you want to know more about the media field and journalist career then continue reading this article.
Individuals in the editor career path is an unsung hero of the news industry who polishes the language of the news stories provided by stringers, reporters, copywriters and content writers and also news agencies. Individuals who opt for a career as an editor make it more persuasive, concise and clear for readers. In this article, we will discuss the details of the editor's career path such as how to become an editor in India, editor salary in India and editor skills and qualities.
Individuals who opt for a career as a reporter may often be at work on national holidays and festivities. He or she pitches various story ideas and covers news stories in risky situations. Students can pursue a BMC (Bachelor of Mass Communication), B.M.M. (Bachelor of Mass Media), or MAJMC (MA in Journalism and Mass Communication) to become a reporter. While we sit at home reporters travel to locations to collect information that carries a news value.
Are you searching for a Corporate Executive job description? A Corporate Executive role comes with administrative duties. He or she provides support to the leadership of the organisation. A Corporate Executive fulfils the business purpose and ensures its financial stability. In this article, we are going to discuss how to become corporate executive.
A multimedia specialist is a media professional who creates, audio, videos, graphic image files, computer animations for multimedia applications. He or she is responsible for planning, producing, and maintaining websites and applications.
Welding Engineer Job Description: A Welding Engineer work involves managing welding projects and supervising welding teams. He or she is responsible for reviewing welding procedures, processes and documentation. A career as Welding Engineer involves conducting failure analyses and causes on welding issues.
A quality controller plays a crucial role in an organisation. He or she is responsible for performing quality checks on manufactured products. He or she identifies the defects in a product and rejects the product.
A quality controller records detailed information about products with defects and sends it to the supervisor or plant manager to take necessary actions to improve the production process.
A Product Manager is a professional responsible for product planning and marketing. He or she manages the product throughout the Product Life Cycle, gathering and prioritising the product. A product manager job description includes defining the product vision and working closely with team members of other departments to deliver winning products.
A QA Lead is in charge of the QA Team. The role of QA Lead comes with the responsibility of assessing services and products in order to determine that he or she meets the quality standards. He or she develops, implements and manages test plans.
A Structural Engineer designs buildings, bridges, and other related structures. He or she analyzes the structures and makes sure the structures are strong enough to be used by the people. A career as a Structural Engineer requires working in the construction process. It comes under the civil engineering discipline. A Structure Engineer creates structural models with the help of computer-aided design software.
The Process Development Engineers design, implement, manufacture, mine, and other production systems using technical knowledge and expertise in the industry. They use computer modeling software to test technologies and machinery. An individual who is opting career as Process Development Engineer is responsible for developing cost-effective and efficient processes. They also monitor the production process and ensure it functions smoothly and efficiently.
An AWS Solution Architect is someone who specializes in developing and implementing cloud computing systems. He or she has a good understanding of the various aspects of cloud computing and can confidently deploy and manage their systems. He or she troubleshoots the issues and evaluates the risk from the third party.
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Careers in computer programming primarily refer to the systematic act of writing code and moreover include wider computer science areas. The word 'programmer' or 'coder' has entered into practice with the growing number of newly self-taught tech enthusiasts. Computer programming careers involve the use of designs created by software developers and engineers and transforming them into commands that can be implemented by computers. These commands result in regular usage of social media sites, word-processing applications and browsers.
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Individuals in the information security manager career path involves in overseeing and controlling all aspects of computer security. The IT security manager job description includes planning and carrying out security measures to protect the business data and information from corruption, theft, unauthorised access, and deliberate attack
An Automation Test Engineer job involves executing automated test scripts. He or she identifies the project’s problems and troubleshoots them. The role involves documenting the defect using management tools. He or she works with the application team in order to resolve any issues arising during the testing process.
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