NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 11 Biotechnology Principles And Processes
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NCERT Exemplar Solutions Class 12 Biology Chapter 11, Biotechnology Principles and Processes, is a valuable study material for students. It covers all types of questions, such as MCQs, short answers, and long answers, making it easier for students to grasp the concepts. It becomes easier to understand the fundamentals of biotechnology, like genetic engineering, recombinant DNA technology, and applications in agriculture and medicine. The NCERT Exemplar Solutions of this chapter cover important topics such as restriction enzymes, vectors, and cloning for clarity through the questions and well-explained answers.
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MPBSE will conduct the MP Board Class 12 exam 2026 from February 7 to March 3. The detailed MP Board higher secondary exams 2026 date sheet is given in the table below.
Exam Dates | Subject |
February 7 | Hindi |
February 9 | Urdu, Marathi |
February 10 | English |
February 13 | Physics, Economics, Animal Hus. Milk Trade Poultry Farming and Fishery, Element of Science, History of Indian Art |
February 14 | Biotechnology, Indian music (Gayan Vadan, Table Pakhavaj) |
February 16 | Sanskrit |
February 17 | Drawing and Designing |
February 18 | History, Chemistry, Business Studies, Elements of Science and Maths useful for agriculture, Drawing and Painting, Home Management, Nutrition, and Textile |
February 19 | Psychology |
February 20 | NSQF- all subjects, Physical education |
February 21 | Agriculture (Humanities Group), Home Science (Art Group), Book-keeping and Accountancy |
February 23 | Biology |
February 25 | Mathematics |
February 26 | Political Science |
February 27 | Informatics practices |
March 2 | Sociology |
March 3 | Geography, Crop. Production and Horticulture, Still Life & Design, Anatomy, Physiology and Health |
This Story also Contains
- NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 11
- Get NCERT Exemplar for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11(MCQs)
- Find NCERT Exemplar for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11(Very short answer Questions)
- Know NCERT Exemplar for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11(Short Answer Questions)
- Access NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Science Chapter 11(Long Answer Questions)
- Approach to Solve Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 11
- Important Topics of Class 12 Biology Chapter 11
- Important Question in Class 12 Biology Chapter 11
- NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter Wise
These NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Solutions help to understand complex topics in easy step-by-step answers that make it less difficult for the students to master techniques such as gene cloning and vectors. It also includes well-structured answers that match the CBSE exam pattern, helping students write the correct and well-prepared answers. These are extremely helpful for board examinations and competitive tests such as NEET, as everything is explained so clearly and is easy to revise. Through studying NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions, students can build a strong understanding of the topics and improve problem-solving skills and accuracy.
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 11
The chapter Biotechnology: Principles and Processes helps students understand how living organisms and biological systems are used to develop useful products. The questions come in various formats such as MCQs, short and long answers. Solving these helps students build a strong understanding of the concepts and prepare better for exams.
Get NCERT Exemplar for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11(MCQs)
The detailed answers to the MCQ solutions are given below:
Question:1
Rising of dough is due to:
a. Multiplication of yeast
b. Production of CO2
c. Emulsification
d. Hydrolysis of wheat flour starch into sugars.
Answer:
The answer is option (b), Production of CO2Explanation: Carbon dioxide creates bubbles in the dough and which leads to the rising of the dough.
Question:2
Which of the following enzymes catalyze the removal of nucleotides from the ends of DNA?
a. endonuclease
b. exonuclease
c. DNA ligase
d. Hind – II
Answer:
The answer is option (b), exonucleaseExplanation: These are of two kinds; exonucleases and endonucleases. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA whereas endonucleases make cuts at Specific positions within the DNA. DNA ligase facilitates joining of sticky ends of DNA fragments. Hind-II is a type of endonuclease.
Question:3
The transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another through the mediation of a viral vector is termed as:
a. Transduction
b. Conjugation
c. Transformation
d. Translation
Answer:
The answer is option (a) TransductionExplanation: Transfer of genetic materials from a virus or bacterium is called transduction.
Question:4
Which of the given statements is correct in the context of visualizing DNA molecules separated by agarose gel electrophoresis?
a. DNA can be seen in visible light
b. DNA can be seen without staining in visible light
c. Ethidium bromide-stained DNA can be seen in visible light
d. Ethidium bromide-stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light
Answer:
The answer is option (d), Ethidium bromide-stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV lightExplanation: DNA cannot be seen in visible light, so options a and b are incorrect. Staining with ethidium bromide and the presence of UV light are necessary to see DNA.
Question:5
'Restriction' in Restriction enzyme refers to:
a. Cleaving of the phosphodiester bond in DNA by the enzyme
b. Cutting of DNA at a specific position only
c. Prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage by the host bacteria
d. All of the above
Answer:
The answer is option (c), Prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage in bacteriaExplanation: Restriction enzymes belong to a class of enzymes called nuclease. Restriction enzymes prevent the multiplication of bacteriophages in bacteria. They are used for cutting DNA at a specific position, which becomes possible by cleaving of phosphodiester bond in DNA by the enzyme. Option 'c' is the correct answer.
Question:6
Which of the following is not required in the preparation of a recombinant DNA molecule?
a. Restriction endonuclease
b. DNA ligase
c. DNA fragments
d. E.coli
Answer:
The answer is option (d) E. coliExplanation: E. coli was used in several experiments involving DNA replication and it has no role in preparation of DNA molecules.
Question:7
In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules are separated on the basis of their:
a. Charge the only
b. Size only
c. Charge to size ratio
d. All of the above
Answer:
The answer is option (b), Size onlyExplanation: All DNA molecules have a uniform negative charge, so during electrophoresis, they move based on size smaller fragments travel faster and farther through the gel than larger ones.
Question:8
The most important feature in a plasmid to serve as a vector in a gene cloning experiment is:
a. Origin of replication (ori)
b. Presence of a selectable marker
c. Presence of sites for restriction endonuclease
d. Its size
Answer:
The answer is option (a), Origin of replication (ori)Explanation: Origin of replication is a sequence from where replication starts and any piece of DNA when linked to this sequence can be made to replicate within the host cells. This sequence is also responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA. Therefore, if one wants to recover many copies of the target DNA it should be cloned in a vector whose origin support high copy number.
Question:9
While isolating DNA from bacteria, which of the following enzymes is not required?
a. Lysozyme
b. Ribonuclease
c. Deoxyribonuclease
d. Protease
Answer:
The answer is option (c), DeoxyribonucleaseExplanation: Lysozyme is used for breaking the membranes which surround DNA. Ribonuclease is used for removing RNA. Protease is used for removing protein. All these steps are necessary for the isolation of DNA from bacteria.
Question:10
Which of the following contributed to popularising the PCR (polymerase chain reaction) technique?
a. Easy availability of DNA template
b. Availability of synthetic primers
c. Availability of cheap deoxyribonucleotides
d. Availability of 'Thermostable' DNA polymerase
Answer:
The answer is option (d), Availability of 'Thermostable' DNA polymeraseExplanation: Thermostable DNA is isolated from the bacterium Thermus aquaticus. It remains active during high temperature-induced denaturation of DNA. Before the discovery of thermostable polymerase, the polymerase in use suffered denaturation during the heat treatment step of the process.
Question:11
An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually helps in the selection of:
a. Competent bacterial cells
b. Transformed bacterial cells
c. Recombinant bacterial cells
d. None of the above
Answer:
The answer is option (b), Transformed cellsExplanation: During culture, only transformed cells survive on agar plate. These cells show resistant to antibiotic and can be easily recognized.
Question:12
Significance of 'heat shock' method in bacterial transformation is to facilitate:
a. Binding of DNA to the cell wall
b. Uptake of DNA through membrane transport proteins
c. Uptake of DNA through transient pores in the bacterial cell wall
d. Expression of antibiotic resistance gene
Answer:
The answer is option (c), Uptake of DNA through transient pores in the bacterial cell wallExplanation: Putting the cells with recombinant DNA on ice; followed by a heat shock and then putting them back on ice helps in uptake of DNA through transient pores in the bacterial cell wall.
Question:13
The role of DNA ligase in the construction of a recombinant DNA molecule is:
a. Formation of a phosphodiester bond between two DNA fragments
b. Formation of hydrogen bonds between sticky ends of DNA fragments
c. Ligation of all purine and pyrimidine bases
d. None of the above
Answer:
The answer is option (a), Formation ofa phosphodiester bond between two DNA fragmentsExplanation: DNA ligase facilitates joining of two sticky ends of DNA fragments by formation of a phosphodiester bond between them.
Question:14
Which of the following bacteria is not a source of restriction endonuclease?
a. Haemophilus influenzae
b. Escherichia coli
c. Entamoeba coli
d. Bacillus amyloliquefaciens
Answer:
The answer is option (c), Entamoeba coliExplanation: Entamoeba coli is not a bacterium and hence is not a source of restriction endonuclease.
Question:15
Which of the following steps are catalyzed by Taq DNA polymerase in a PCR reaction?
a. Denaturation of template DNA
b. Annealing of primers to template DNA
c. Extension of primer end on the template DNA
d. All of the above
Answer:
The answer is option (c), Extension of primer end on the template DNAExplanation: (c) Extension of primer end on the template DNA
Question:16
A bacterial cell was transformed with a recombinant DNA molecule that was generated using a human gene. However, the transformed cells did not produce the desired protein. Reasons could be:
a. A human gene may have an intron that bacteria cannot process
b. Amino acid codons for humans and bacteria are different
c. Human protein is formed but degraded by bacteria
d. All of the above
Answer:
The answer is option (a) Human gene may have an intron that bacteria cannot processExplanation: Any nucleotide sequence in a gene that is removed by RNA splicing during maturation of the final RNA product is called an intron. Intron can be different in different organisms.
Question:17
Which of the following should be chosen for the best yield if one were to produce a recombinant protein in large amounts?
a. Laboratory flask of the largest capacity
b. A stirred-tank bioreactor without inlets and outlets
c. A continuous culture system
d. Any of the above
Answer:
The answer is option (c), A continuous culture systemExplanation: A large flask, without a suitable culture system, is not going to yield anything. The same holds for a tank bioreactor. It is the continuous culture system that is a must for producing a recombinant protein.
Question:18
Who among the following was awarded the Nobel Prize for the development of the PCR technique?
a. Herbert Boyer
b. Hargovind Khurana
c. Kary Mullis
d. Arthur Kornberg
Answer:
The answer is option (c), Kary MullisExplanation: Kary Mullis was awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1993 for developing the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique, which revolutionized molecular biology by allowing rapid DNA amplification.
Question:19
Which of the following statements does not hold for a restriction enzyme?
a. It recognizes a palindromic nucleotide sequence
b. It is an endonuclease
c. It is isolated from viruses
d. It can produce the same kind of sticky ends in different DNA molecules
Answer:
The answer is option (c). It is isolated from virusesExplanation: Restriction enzymes are actually isolated from bacteria, where they serve as a defense mechanism against invading viral DNA.
Find NCERT Exemplar for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11(Very short answer Questions)
The detailed answers to the very short questions are given below:
Question:1
How is the copy number of the plasmid vector related to the yield of recombinant protein?
Answer:
A higher number of copies of the plasmid vector helps in producing a large quantity of recombinant protein.Question:2
Would you choose an exonuclease while producing a recombinant DNA molecule?
Answer:
Exonuclease removes nucleotides from the ends of the DNA, and hence it cannot help in producing circular DNA. So, exonuclease cannot be used for making a recombinant DNA molecule.Question:3
What does H in 'd' and 'III' refer to in the enzyme Hind III?
Answer:
In the enzyme Hind III, 'H in' refers to Haemophilus influenza, D refers to the strain of H. influenza, and III refers to the sequence in which this enzyme was discovered.Question:4
Answer:
Presence of more than one recognition site on vector will generate many fragment of DNA; which will complicate the matter. Hence, restriction enzymes should have one recognition site at the vector.Question:5
What does 'competent' refer to in incompetent cells used in transformation experiments?
Answer:
The ability of the bacterial cell to take up DNA through pores in the cell wall is called competence. DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, and hence, it cannot pass through the cell membrane. So, the cell is made 'competent' by treating with suitable divalent ion; like calcium.Question:6
What is the significance of adding proteases at the time of isolation of genetic material (DNA)?
Answer:
Protease helps in removing protein during the process of obtaining pure DNA. Other macromolecules are eliminated with the help of suitable enzymes during this process. In the end, pure DNA is isolated.Question:7
While doing a PCR, 'denaturation' step is missed. What will be its effect on the process?
Answer:
If denaturation is missed, then primers will not be able to join at the template. This will result in no extension, no amplification, and thus a large number of copies of DNA cannot be made.Question:8
Name a recombinant vaccine that is currently being used in the vaccination program.
Answer:
Hepatitis B vaccineQuestion:9
Do biomolecules (DNA, protein) exhibit biological activity in anhydrous conditions?
Answer:
Biomolecules do not exhibit biological activity in anhydrous conditions. DNA may get damaged under anhydrous condition but has the ability to repair later on. Protein molecule may get denatured under anhydrous conditions.Question:10
Answer:
Ti plasmid in Agrobacterium has the ability to induce tumours in plants. This plasmid is 'disarmed' by suitable modification, and then it can be used as a cloning vector for delivering a gene of interest to plants and animals.Know NCERT Exemplar for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11(Short Answer Questions)
The detailed answers to the short answer questions are given below:
Question:1
What is meant by gene cloning?
Answer:
A set of experimental methods used to assemble recombinant DNA molecules and to use them for cloning in a host organism is called gene cloning. Gene cloning involves the following main steps:- Selection of a suitable gene.
- Treating the gene to obtain small fragments.
- Transferring the fragment to a suitable host.
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Answer:
Biotechnology can be defined as a set of methods to use live organisms to produce products and processes for the benefit of humankind. Therefore, it is correct to include a winemaker as well as a molecular biologist under the category of biotechnologist. They have developed a recombinant vaccine which will increase the production of a vaccine for human welfare.Question:3
Answer:
When a DNA molecule is created by ligating a gene to a plasmid vector, it becomes a circular DNA which is ready to replicate in the host organism. Addition of exonuclease is not going to affect the process after this stage because the DNA does not have a free end, and hence enzyme exonuclease will not get a substrate to show its action. Therefore, in this experiment, bacterial transformation is not going to be disturbed.Question:4
Answer:
Specific-recognition sequence in a DNA provide sticky ends at which recombination of genes takes place. This further leads to the replication of the selected gene. If endonuclease fails to cut DNA at specific-recognition sequence; then recombination or replication will fail to take place.Question:6
How does one visualize DNA on an agarose gel?
Answer:
DNA fragments separate when they are moved towards the anode in an electric field. The agarose gel provides the matrix through which DNA fragments separate due to a sieving effect. Separated DNA fragments can be visualized only after staining with ethidium bromide and then by exposure to UV radiation. After staining, DNA fragments appear as bright orange bands.Question:7
Answer:
Selectable marker helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformant DNA and in selectively permitting the growth of transformants. In the absence of a selectable marker, it will not be possible to differentiate between transformants and non-transformants. Thus, carrying the experiment to its logical end would be impossible in the absence of a selectable marker.Question:8
Answer:
The following are the possible reasons for the non-observation of DNA bands:(a) DNA may have been contaminated because of the accidental addition of a nuclease enzyme.
(b) Electrodes may have been put in the wrong orientation with the anode towards the loading well. As DNA is negatively charged, it moves towards the anode. When the anode is near the loading well, separated DNA may move out of the gel.
(c) Quantity of ethidium bromide may not have been sufficient.
Question:9
Describe the role of CaCl2 in the preparation of competent cells.
Answer:
Divalent ions increase the efficiency of uptake of DNA through the pores in the bacterial cell wall. CaCl2 provides the divalent ion Ca2+, which creates transient pores on the bacterial cell wall, which facilitate entry of foreign DNA into the bacterial cells. Loading of divalent ions makes the cell competent.Question:10
Answer:
In the absence of an antibiotic, the recombinant bacterium does not need to produce a gene, which can make it resistant to the antibiotic. In other words, there is no pressure on the recombinant bacterium to make the desirable gene. Thus, in the absence of an antibiotic, a gene of interest will not be produced by the recombinant bacterium.Question:11
Identify and explain the steps' A', 'B' and 'C' in the PCR diagram given below.
Answer:
A: Denaturation, B: Annealing, C: ExtensionQuestion:12
Name the regions marked A, B and C.
Answer:
A shows a tetracycline resistance siteB shows restriction site Pst I
C shows an ampicillin resistance site
CBSE Class 12th Syllabus: Subjects & Chapters
Select your preferred subject to view the chapters
Access NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Science Chapter 11(Long Answer Questions)
The detailed answers to the long-answer questions are given below:
Question:1
Answer:
A marker gene helps in differentiating between transformant genes and non-transformant genes. This helps in selecting the suitable recombinants. In the case of E. coli, pBR322 is the vector for resistance to the antibiotic tetracycline. The insertional inactivation of pBR322 will result in loss of resistance to tetracycline by E. coli. This can be found out by growing the recombinants on two plates: one containing tetracycline and another containing ampicillin. The recombinant will grow in ampicillin but not in tetracycline.A marker gene for chromogenic substrate helps in identifying the recombinant DNA on the basis of gain or loss of colour from the chromogenic substrate. Insertional inactivation of a marker gene coding for a chromogenic substrate will result in no blue colour imparted in the colony. These steps are taken for easy identification of recombinants from non-recombinants.
Question:2
Describe the role of Agrobacterium tumefaciens in transforming a plant cell.
Answer:
Agrobacterium tumefaciens infects walnuts, grapevines, sugar beets, horseradish, etc.The role of Agrobacterium tumefaciens in transforming a plant cell can be described as:
- Agrobacterium tumefaciens infects plants usually through an open wound.
- Once it enters its plant host, it injects a section of its DNA called the T-DNA which is derived from its Ti (tumour-inducing) plasmid into its host.
- The T-DNA first directs the plant cells to make auxins and cytokinins, which causes the cells to become irregularly shaped and form a visible tumour called a gall.
- The T-DNA then directs the plant cell to start making opines (usually nopaline or atropine), which A. tumefaciens uses as an energy source. Thus, A. tumefaciens creates a special niche for itself inside the gall.
Question:3
Answer:
(a) Simple stirred-tank bioreactor;
(b) Sparged stirred-tank bioreactor through which sterile air bubbles are sparged
Structure of Bioreactor:
- It is a cylindrical structure with a curved base.
- A stirrer is present for even mixing and oxygen availability throughout the reactor.
- There is an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system, a foam control system, a temperature control system, etc.
- There is a sampling port through which small volumes of culture can be taken out periodically.
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Solutions Subject wise:
Approach to Solve Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 11
To answer Biotechnology Principles and Processes questions well, adopt this easy-to-follow approach:
- Understand that the principles of biotechnology are based primarily on two fundamental truths: genetic engineering (altering DNA to incorporate new characteristics) and bioprocess engineering.
- Understand the major steps of genetic engineering, which are purifying the desired DNA, placing it into a vector (such as a plasmid), introducing the vector into a host organism, and replicating the recombinant DNA individually to create lots of copies.
- Understand that restriction enzymes (molecular scissors) cleave DNA at precise sites, and ligases seal DNA fragments to form recombinant DNA.
- Practice diagramming and describing the steps involved in recombinant DNA technology, such as the use of vectors, hosts, and selectable markers.
- Revise the NCERT textbook and practice previous years' questions to become familiar with diagrams, terminology, and question types from this chapter
Also, Read the NCERT Solution subject-wise
Important Topics of Class 12 Biology Chapter 11
Biotechnology: Principles and Processes is a chapter that introduces students to the basics of biotechnology, including how biological systems and organisms are used to develop useful products and technologies.
Genetic Engineering
Applications in Medicine
Applications in Agriculture
Environmental Biotechnology
Must Read NCERT Notes subject-wise
Important Question in Class 12 Biology Chapter 11
Biotechnology: Principles and Processes chapter covers the fundamental principles and techniques used in biotechnology, including genetic engineering, DNA manipulation, and the processes involved in producing recombinant DNA.
Question. What is biotechnology?
A. Study of fossils
B. Use of living organisms or their products to modify living or non-living materials for human use
C. Chemical synthesis of drugs
D. Study of plants only
Answer:
Biotechnology is the use of living organisms or their products to modify living or non-living materials to produce useful products for human benefit.
Hence, the correct option is B. Use of living organisms or their products to modify living or non-living materials for human use.
Also, check the NCERT Books and the NCERT Syllabus here
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter Wise
Find all chapter-wise practice questions and solutions in the table below to strengthen your concepts and prepare effectively for exams.
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
Q: Why is practicing Exemplar problems important for Chapter 11?
A:
Practising exemplar problems helps students build conceptual clarity, improve problem-solving skills, and prepare for varied question formats found in board exams and competitive tests like NEET. The questions help to understand and encourage the application of concepts in new situations.
Q: What is PCR, and why is it important in biotechnology?
A:
PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is a technique used to amplify specific DNA sequences, making millions of copies from a small initial sample. It is important in genetic testing, disease diagnosis, forensic analysis, and research.
Q: What types of questions are included in the NCERT Exemplar for this chapter?
A:
The Exemplar provides a wide range of question types: multiple-choice questions (MCQs), fill in the blanks, match the following, true/false, and conceptual short and long answer questions. These are designed to test both basic understanding and higher-order thinking skills, making them valuable for board and entrance exam preparation.
Q: What are restriction enzymes and why are they important in biotechnology?
A:
Restriction enzymes are molecular scissors that cut DNA at specific sequences, enabling scientists to isolate and manipulate genes. They are essential tools in genetic engineering, allowing for the creation of recombinant DNA molecules used in cloning, gene therapy, and research.
Q: What is the main focus of Chapter 11: Biotechnology – Principles and Processes in the NCERT Exemplar?
A:
This chapter introduces the foundational principles and techniques of biotechnology, including genetic engineering, cloning, use of restriction enzymes, vectors, and the process of recombinant DNA technology. It emphasizes understanding both the theoretical concepts and practical applications relevant to modern biology and medicine.
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Taking a drop year to reappear for the Karnataka Common Entrance Test (KCET) is a well-defined process. As a repeater, you are fully eligible to take the exam again to improve your score and secure a better rank for admissions.
The main procedure involves submitting a new application for the KCET through the official Karnataka Examinations Authority (KEA) website when registrations open for the next academic session. You must pay the required application fee and complete all formalities just like any other candidate. A significant advantage for you is that you do not need to retake your 12th board exams. Your previously secured board marks in the qualifying subjects will be used again. Your new KCET rank will be calculated by combining these existing board marks with your new score from the KCET exam. Therefore, your entire focus during this year should be on preparing thoroughly for the KCET to achieve a higher score.
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Yes, you can switch from Science in Karnataka State Board to Commerce in CBSE for 12th. You will need a Transfer Certificate from your current school and meet the CBSE school’s admission requirements. Since you haven’t studied Commerce subjects like Accountancy, Economics, and Business Studies, you may need to catch up before or during 12th. Not all CBSE schools accept direct admission to 12th from another board, so some may ask you to join Class 11 first. Make sure to check the school’s rules and plan your subject preparation.
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For the 12th CBSE Hindi Medium board exam, important questions usually come from core chapters like “Madhushala”, “Jhansi ki Rani”, and “Bharat ki Khoj”.
Questions often include essay writing, letter writing, and comprehension passages. Grammar topics like Tenses, Voice Change, and Direct-Indirect Speech are frequently asked.
Students should practice poetry questions on themes and meanings. Important questions also cover summary writing and translation from Hindi to English or vice versa.
Previous years’ question papers help identify commonly asked questions.
Focus on writing practice to improve handwriting and presentation. Time management during exams is key to answering all questions effectively.
Popular CBSE Class 12th Questions
A block of mass 0.50 kg is moving with a speed of 2.00 ms-1 on a smooth surface. It strikes another mass of 1.00 kg and then they move together as a single body. The energy loss during the collision is
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Option 2)
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Option 4)
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An athlete in the olympic games covers a distance of 100 m in 10 s. His kinetic energy can be estimated to be in the range
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Option 4)
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A particle is projected at 600 to the horizontal with a kinetic energy . The kinetic energy at the highest point
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In the reaction,
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How many moles of magnesium phosphate, will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms?
| Option 1)
0.02 |
Option 2)
3.125 × 10-2 |
| Option 3)
1.25 × 10-2 |
Option 4)
2.5 × 10-2 |
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