NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction
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NCERT Exemplar solutions of the Human Reproduction chapter in Class 12 Biology give well explained solutions of all types of questions. Through these questions, it covers all the important concepts of this chapter, from how the male and female reproductive systems work to gametogenesis, fertilisation, implantation, pregnancy, and childbirth. Topics like the menstrual cycle, zygote formation, embryo development, and those tricky hormones are covered. The NCERT Exemplar Solutions make learning easier for students. With proper questions, neat explanations, and a clear flow, it helps you understand the chapter without any doubts, which is helpful for boards and NEET preparation.
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This Story also Contains
- NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Multiple Choice Questions
- Get the NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Very Short Answer Type Questions
- Explore the NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Short Answer Type Questions
- Access to NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Long Answer Type Questions
- Approach to solve Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 3: Human Reproduction
- Main Topics of NCERT Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction
- Important Question from Class 12 Biology Chapter 3
- NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter Wise
The NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology contain a variety of questions, like multiple-choice questions (MCQs), short answers, long answers, and diagram-based questions, to explain core topics better. Many of the questions focus on practical understanding and real-life applications, which makes learning easier. These step-by-step and well-explained solutions help students prepare effectively for their board exams and competitive exams like NEET. The NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 for Human Reproduction is a useful resource for easily learning complex concepts.
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Multiple Choice Questions
Below are the MCQ-type questions with their correct answers and explanations:
Question:1
Choose the incorrect statement from the following:
a. In birds and mammals, internal Fertilisation takes place
b. Colostrum contains antibodies and nutrients
c. Polyspermy in mammals is prevented by the chemical changes in the egg surfaced.
d. In the human female implantation occurs almost seven days after Fertilisation
Answer:
In mammals, polyspermy is blocked primarily by a physical barrier. Once a sperm fuses with the egg membrane, the zona pellucida absorbs water, swells, and forms a hardened shell-like structure to prevent further sperm entry. This is a mechanical block, not a chemical one. The statement suggests a chemical change, which is incorrect in the context of mammals.
Hence, the correct answer is option (c) Polyspermy in mammals is prevented by the chemical changes in the egg surface.
Question:2
Identify the correct statement from the following:
a. High levels of estrogen trigger the ovulatory surge.
b. Oogonial cells start to proliferate and give rise to functional ova in regular cycles from puberty onwards.
c. Sperms released from seminiferous tubules are highly motile.
d. Progesterone level is high during the post-ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle
Answer:
Progesterone is the hormone responsible for maintaining the uterine lining post-ovulation—it prepares the body for possible implantation. Estrogen builds up earlier but does not cause ovulatory surge; that’s the job of LH (with FSH). Also, sperms are non-motile when first released from seminiferous tubules, and oogonia stop dividing well before birth—not at puberty.
Hence, the correct answer is option (d) Progesterone level is high during the post-ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle.
Question:3
Spot the odd one out from the following structures with reference to the male reproductive system:
a. Rete testis
b. Epididymis
c. Vasa efferentia
d. Isthmus
Answer:
Rete testis, epididymis, and vasa efferentia are all anatomical structures associated with sperm transport in the male reproductive system. However, the isthmus is a portion of the fallopian tube and is part of the female reproductive system. So, this is a classic “odd one out” scenario.
Hence, the correct answer is option (d) Isthmus.
Question:4
Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen, is contributed by.
i. Seminal vesicle
ii. Prostate gland
iii. Urethra
iv. Bulbourethral gland
(a) i and ii (b) i, ii and iv (c) ii, iii and iv (d) i and iv
Answer:
Seminal plasma is the fluid part of semen and is secreted by the seminal vesicle (which adds fructose), the prostate gland (which adds enzymes), and the bulbourethral gland (which provides lubrication). The urethra simply transports the semen—it doesn’t contribute to its production.
Hence, the correct answer is option (b) i, ii and iv.
Question:5
Spermiation is the process of the release of sperm from:
a. Seminiferous tubules
b. Vas deferens
c. Epididymis
d. Prostate gland
Answer:
Spermiation refers to the release of mature spermatozoa from the Sertoli cells into the lumen of the seminiferous tubules. This marks the final stage of spermatogenesis before the sperm begins its journey through the male duct system.
Hence, the correct answer is option (a) Seminiferous tubules.
Question:6
A mature Graafian follicle is generally present in the ovary of a healthy human female around:
a. 5 – 8 day of menstrual cycle
b. 11 – 17 days of the menstrual cycle
c. 18 – 23 days of menstrual cycle
d. 24 – 28 days of the menstrual cycle
Answer:
The Graafian follicle matures in the ovary between the 11th and 17th day of the menstrual cycle, with ovulation typically occurring around day 14. This follicle houses the secondary oocyte and bursts to release it during ovulation. Before day 11, it’s still growing; after day 17, ovulation has usually already occurred.
Hence, the correct answer is option (b) 11–17 days of the menstrual cycle.
Question:7
The acrosomal reaction of the sperm occurs due to:
a. Its contact with zona pellucida of the ova
b. Reactions within the uterine environment of the female
c. Reactions within the epididymal environment of the male
d. Androgens produced in the uterus
Answer:
The acrosomal reaction is triggered when the sperm contacts the zona pellucida of the ovum. This reaction involves the release of enzymes such as hyaluronidase and acrosin, which digest the zona pellucida and allow the sperm to penetrate the egg.
Hence, the correct answer is option (a) Its contact with zona pellucida of the ova.
Question:8
Which one of the following is not a male accessory gland?
a. Seminal vesicle
b. Ampulla
c. Prostate
d. Bulbourethral gland
Answer:
Male accessory glands include the seminal vesicle, prostate, and bulbourethral gland, which together produce the fluid part of semen. The ampulla, however, is not an accessory gland—it is part of the female reproductive system (specifically the upper fallopian tube).
Hence, the correct answer is option (b) Ampulla.
Question:9
The spermatogonia undergo division to produce sperm by the process of spermatogenesis. Choose the correct one with reference to athe bove.
a. Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes and always undergo meiotic cell division
b. Primary spermatocytes divide by mitotic cell division
c. Secondary spermatocytes have 23 chromosomes and undergo second meiotic division
d. Spermatozoa are transformed into spermatids
Answer:
Spermatogenesis is a multi-stage process. Spermatogonia (2n) first undergo mitosis. Primary spermatocytes (2n) then go through the first meiotic division to form secondary spermatocytes (n), which proceed with the second meiotic division to form spermatids. Hence, secondary spermatocytes do have 23 chromosomes and are meiotically active.
Hence, the correct answer is option (c) Secondary spermatocytes have 23 chromosomes and undergo second meiotic division.
Question:10
Column I A. Head B. Middle piece C. Acrosome D. Tail | Column II i. Enzymes ii. Sperm motility iii. Energy iv. Genetic material |
a. A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
b. A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
c. A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
d. A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
Answer:
The head of the sperm contains the nucleus (genetic material). The middle piece is packed with mitochondria to provide energy. The acrosome at the tip of the head contains enzymes to help penetrate the egg. The tail enables motility, allowing the sperm to swim towards the ovum.
Hence, the correct answer is option (b) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – ii.
Question:12
Match the following and choose the correct options:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| A. Trophoblast | iii. The outer layer of the blastocyst attached to the endometrium |
| B. Cleavage | iv. Mitotic division of the zygote |
| C. Inner cell mass | ii. Group of cells that would differentiate as embryo |
| D. Implantation | i. Embedding of the blastocyst in the endometrium |
a. A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
b. A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
c. A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
d. A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
Answer:
The trophoblast is the outer layer of the blastocyst that attaches to the endometrium. Cleavage is the early mitotic division of the zygote. The inner cell mass forms the embryo. Implantation refers to the process of the blastocyst embedding itself in the uterine wall.
Hence, the correct answer is option (b) A – iii, B – iv, C – ii, D – i.
Question:13
Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the human placenta?
a. hCG
b. Estrogens
c. Progesterone
d. LH
Answer:
The human placenta produces hCG, estrogen, and progesterone, which are essential for maintaining pregnancy. LH, however, is produced by the anterior pituitary and not by the placenta. This makes LH the only hormone in the list that is not placental.
Hence, the correct answer is option (d) LH.
Question:14
The vas deferens receives duct from the seminal vesicle and opens into the urethra as:
a. Epididymis
b. Ejaculatory duct
c. Efferent ductule
d. Ureter
Answer:
The vas deferens combines with the duct of the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct, which then empties into the urethra. This duct is a crucial passage for the transport of semen during ejaculation.
Hence, the correct answer is option (b) Ejaculatory duct.
Question:15
Urethral meatus refers to the:
a. Urinogenital duct
b. Opening of vas deferens into urethra
c. The external opening of the urinogenital duct
d. Muscles surrounding the urinogenital duct
Answer:
The urethral meatus is the external opening of the male urinogenital duct. It allows for the discharge of urine and semen. This structure is located at the tip of the penis and is distinct from internal ducts or muscular tissues.
Hence, the correct answer is option (c) The external opening of the urinogenital duct.
Question:16
Morula is a developmental stage:
a. Between the zygote and blastocyst
b. Between the blastocyst and gastrula
c. After the implantation
d. Between implantation and parturition
Answer:
The morula is a solid ball of cells formed after several mitotic divisions of the zygote but before it becomes a blastocyst. This stage occurs during the early days post-fertilisation, while the embryo is still moving through the fallopian tube.
Hence, the correct answer is option (a) between the zygote and blastocyst.
Question:17
The membranous cover of the ovum at ovulation is:
a. Corona Radiata
b. Zona radiata
c. Zona pellucida
d. Chorion
Answer:
At the time of ovulation, the ovum is surrounded by the corona radiata—a layer of granulosa cells that nourish and protect it. Zona pellucida lies just beneath this layer, and the chorion appears much later during embryonic development.
Hence, the correct answer is option (a) Corona radiata.
Question:18
Identify the odd one from the following:
a. Labia minora
b. Fimbriae
c. Infundibulum
d. Isthmus
Answer:
Fimbriae, infundibulum, and isthmus are anatomical regions of the fallopian tube, essential for capturing and transporting the ovum. Labia minora, however, is part of the external genitalia and unrelated to the internal transport of ova, making it the odd one out.
Hence, the correct answer is option (a) Labia minora.
Get the NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Very Short Answer Type Questions
Below are the very short answer-type questions with their answers:
Question:1
Answer:
Gametogenesis→Insemination→Fertilization→Implantation→Gestation→Parturition
Question:3
What is the role of the cervix in the human female reproductive system
Answer:
The cervix and vagina together form the birth canal. Parturition happens through the birth canal.
Question:4
Why are menstrual cycles absent during pregnancy?
Answer:
Gonadotropins, which are required for the development of new follicles, are suppressed due to the high levels of progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy. This inhibits the initiation of a new menstrual cycle.
Question:5
Column A | Column B |
Ovaries | Ovulation |
Oviduct | A |
B | Pregnancy |
| Vagina | Birth |
Answer:
Column A | Column B |
Ovaries | Ovulation |
Oviduct | Fertilisation |
| Uterus | Pregnancy |
| Vagina | Birth |
A. Fertilisation - Fertilisation of the egg by sperm usually occurs in the oviduct (fallopian tube).
B. Uterus - The fertilised egg implants in the uterus, where the embryo develops during pregnancy.
Question:6
Answer:
Parturition signals arise from the foetus. Oxytocin is the main hormone involved in parturition and is released from the maternal pituitary gland.
Question:7
What is the significance of epididymis in male fertility?
Answer:
Secretions from the epididymis, vas deferens, prostate and seminal vesicle are essential for the maturation and motility of sperms. These organs play an important role in male fertility.
Question:8
Answer:
Hormone | Function | Hormone’s origin |
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) | Act on the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the release of LH and FSH | Hypothalamus |
Luteinizing Hormone (LH) | Acts at Leydig cells and stimulates the secretion of androgen | Pituitary |
Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) | Acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates factors which are involved in spermatogenesis | Pituitary |
Question:10
Answer:
Chromosome number reduces to half in gametes as, during gametogenesis, meiosis takes place resulting in the haploid number of chromosomes.
During Fertilisation, male and female gametes undergo fusion to make the diploid zygote.
Question:11
What is the difference between a primary oocyte and a secondary oocyte?
Answer:
Primary Oocyte | Secondary Oocyte |
The primary oocyte is formed when the female is still in the womb | A secondary oocyte is formed when the individual undergoes puberty |
It is surrounded by a secondary follicle | It is surrounded by tertiary follicle |
The number of chromosomes is 46 | The number of chromosomes is 23 |
Question:12
What is the significance of ampullary-isthmic junction in the female reproductive tract?
Answer:
The first cleavage division of the zygote occurs in the ampullary-isthmic junction in the female reproductive tract
Question:13
How does zona pellucida of ovum help in preventing polyspermy?
Answer:
Zona pellucida’s membrane undergoes changes when sperm comes into contact with it. This prevents the entry of other sperm into the ovum and thus prevents polyspermy.
Question:14
Mention the importance of LH surge during the menstrual cycle.
Answer:
The rupture of the Graafian follicle is induced by a rapid surge in LH level. Resulting in the release of ovum (ovulation)
Question:15
Which type of cell division forms spermatids from the secondary spermatocytes?
Answer:
Meiosis results in the formation of spermatids from secondary spermatocytes.
Explore the NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Short Answer Type Questions
Below are the short-answer type questions with their brief answers:
Question:1
Answer:
Menarche marks the onset of puberty (the beginning of the reproductive phase).
Menopause marks the end of the reproductive phase.
Question:2
a. How many spermatozoa are formed from one secondary spermatocyte?
b. Where does the first cleavage division of the zygote take place?
Answer:
(a) One secondary spermatocyte forms four spermatids, all of which subsequently develop into spermatozoa via the process of spermiogenesis.
(b) The first cleavage division of the zygote takes place in the ampullary-isthmus junction.
Question:4
Answer:
Corpus luteum is responsible for the secretion of progesterone, which is essential to maintain the endometrium and helps in the proper development of the foetus.
This is the reason for the long life of Corpus luteum when Fertilisation has occurred. However, when there is no fertilisation, it serves no purpose and thus remains active only for 10-12 days
Question:4
What is the foetal ejection reflex? Explain how it leads to parturition.
Answer:
The foetal ejection reflex is the mild uterine contraction at the time of childbirth. It triggers the release of oxytocin from the maternal pituitary, which induces strong uterine contraction and finally leads to parturition.
Question:5
Except for the endocrine function, what are the other functions of the placenta?
Answer:
The placenta is responsible for the following in addition to its endocrine function –
(A) Supply of oxygen and nutrients to foetus
(B) Removal of waste products from the foetus
Question:6
Why do doctors recommend breastfeeding during the initial period of infant growth?
Answer:
Milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is known as colostrum and contains several antibodies, which are important for the development of disease resistance in the baby. This is the prime reason why doctors recommend breastfeeding during the initial period of growth of an infant.
Question:7
Answer:
During the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, the following things happen in the ovary and the uterus –
- The primary follicle in the ovary grows into a fully mature Graafian follicle
- Endometrium in the uterus regenerates through the proliferation
- Estrogen is secreted by growing follicles.
Question:8
Answer:
Hormones responsible for various changes during the menstrual cycle are:
- Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH): It is responsible for the transformation of the primary follicle into the Graafian follicle.
- Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH): It is also responsible for ovulation. It works in coordination with LH and complements its function.
- Luteinizing Hormone (LH): It is responsible for the development of the corpus luteum from the Graafian follicle.
Question:10
Answer:
Following changes occur in the oogonia during the transition of a primary follicle to a Graafian follicle:
(a) Each primary oocyte is surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells; called a primary follicle
(b) Primary follicle transforms into secondary follicle by getting surrounded by another layer of granulosa cells and a new theca.
(c) The secondary follicle then transforms into the tertiary follicle. The tertiary follicle is characterised by a fluid-filled cavity called the antrum. At this stage, the primary oocyte undergoes a second meiotic division and forms a secondary oocyte and a tiny polar body.
(d) The tertiary follicle then changes into a mature Graafian follicle. During this stage, a new layer; called zona pellucida; develops around the secondary oocyte.
Access to NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Long Answer Type Questions
Students can study long answers to evaluate their understanding and improve accuracy.
Question:1
Answer:
Pituitary gonadotropins (FSH and LH) play a very important role during the follicular and ovulatory phases of the menstrual cycle.
- FSH stimulates the release of the ovum from the Graafian follicle. It also stimulates the development and following rupture of the Graafian follicle. Thus, FSH plays a major role during the follicular and ovulatory phases.
- The above figure shows varying levels of LH. FSH and steroid hormones during the follicular and ovulation phases of the menstrual cycle.
- At this stage, the level of estradiol (a steroid hormone) increases. This stops the level of the Luteinizing hormone (LH). Once the level of estradiol reaches a threshold level, the effect is reversed.
- After that, the level of estrogen (another steroid hormone) increases. This stimulates an increase in levels of LH. A high level of LH stimulates the development of the corpus luteum and proliferation of the endometrium, thus marking the beginning of the luteal phase.
Question:2
Meiotic division during oogenesis is different from that in spermatogenesis. Explain how and why.
Answer:
In males, spermatogenesis begins at puberty, when meiosis starts and sperm production becomes active. In females, oogenesis begins much earlier, while the girl is still in her mother’s womb. By around the 20th week of pregnancy, all the primary oocytes are already formed, and the process pauses there.
- Begins at puberty in males
- Begins before birth in females
- Primary oocytes are formed by the 20th week of pregnancy
- Spermatogenesis continues regularly after it starts
- Oogenesis pauses after initial formation
In spermatogenesis, all stages of meiosis happen one after the other without a break. But in oogenesis, meiosis stops at Prophase I and stays paused until puberty. After that, it resumes slowly and in small batches.
- No delay in meiosis during spermatogenesis
- Meiosis pauses at Prophase I during oogenesis
- Oogenesis continues slowly after puberty
This difference exists because male gametes are needed in large numbers since most of them don’t survive. Female gametes are protected, and fewer are needed. Producing fewer eggs also helps the body save energy, which is useful later during pregnancy and the development of the baby.
- Male gametes are made in large numbers
- Female gametes are fewer in number
- Fewer eggs help conserve energy for pregnancy and foetal growth
Question:3
Answer:
The following figure shows various stages of zygote development till implantation:
(a) The zygote divides into a two-cell stage called cleavage. This development takes place when the zygote is still in the isthmus.
(b) The cleavage undergoes further rounds of mitosis to form 2, 4, 8 and finally 16-celled stage.
These daughter cells are called blastomeres.
(c) The 16-celled stage is known asa morula.
(d) The morula changes into a blastocyst; with more rounds of meiosis. At this stage, the blastomeres are arranged in an outer layer of cells; called the trophoblast and an inner mass of cells.
(e) Implantation to the uterine wall happens at the blastocyst stage.
Question:4
Draw a neat diagram of the female reproductive system and label the parts associated with the following
(a) production of gamete,
(b) site of fertilisation
(c) site of implantation and,
(d) birth canal.
Answer:
Question:5
With a suitable diagram, describe the organisation of the mammary gland.
Answer:
Mammary glands are paired structures which contain glandular tissue and a variable amount of fat.
- Glandular tissue present in each breast is made up of 15 - 20 mammary lobes. These lobes have clusters of cells known as alveoli.
- Milk, stored in the cavities (lumens) of alveoli, is secreted from the cells of alveoli. The alveoli open in mammary tubules.
- Tubules from each lobe join to form a mammary duct.
- Many mammary ducts join to form a wider mammary ampulla.
- A mammary ampulla is connected to the lactiferous duct. Milk is sucked out through the lactiferous duct.
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Solutions Subject Wise
- NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Solutions
- NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Mathematics Solutions
- NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Physics Solutions
CBSE Class 12th Syllabus: Subjects & Chapters
Select your preferred subject to view the chapters
Approach to solve Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 3: Human Reproduction
- Firstly, students need to understand the basic structure of the male and female reproductive systems, with a focus on different organs, and all hormones involved.
- After that, study the processes step-by-step, such as gametogenesis, fertilization, implantation, pregnancy, and parturition. These can be easily learn by making the flow charts.
- Practice the well-labeled diagrams of human sperm, ovum, female reproductive system, and stages of embryonic development to get a clear vision of this chapter.
- Read the NCERT textbook line by line, as many questions appear from this in the exam.
- Solve Previous Year Questions, all different types of questions, and sample papers to get familiar with the pattern and important topics.
NEET Highest Scoring Chapters & Topics
Most Scoring concepts For NEET (Based On Previous Year Analysis)
Download EBookAlso, read the NCERT Solution subject-wise
Main Topics of NCERT Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction
This chapter covers some of the important topics and concepts related to reproduction, which are listed below:
- The Male Reproductive System
- The Female Reproductive System
- Gametogenesis
- Menstrual Cycle
- Fertilisation and Implantation
- Pregnancy and Embryonic Development
- Parturition and Lactation
Also, check the NCERT Books and the NCERT Syllabus here
Important Question from Class 12 Biology Chapter 3
Given below is an important question from this chapter that will help students to prepare effectively for the exam.
Question: Which of the following is not a component of the Fallopian tube?
A. Uterine fundus
B. Isthmus
C. Infundibulum
D. Ampulla
Answer:
The correct answer is option (1) as the uterine fundus is the upper, dome-shaped part of the uterus, above
the opening of fallopian tubes.
• Option (2) is incorrect as the isthmus is the last and narrow part of the oviduct that links to the uterus.
• Option (3) is incorrect as the infundibulum is the part of the oviduct that is closer to the ovary.
• Option (4) is incorrect as the ampulla is the wider part of the oviduct.
Must Read NCERT Notes subject-wise
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter Wise
Find all chapter-wise practice questions and solutions in the table below to strengthen your concepts and prepare effectively for exams.
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
Q: What are the key topics covered in Chapter 3 Human Reproduction NCERT Exemplar?
A:
Chapter 3 – Human Reproduction deals with how humans reproduce and how a baby develops.
- Organs
- Gametes
- Hormones
- Fertilisation
- Implantation
- Pregnancy
- Placenta
- Lactation
- Health
- Contraception
- ART (Assisted Reproductive Technologies)
Q: How are these questions solved by the experts?
A:
The experts use the chapters and also the information that is provided to them along with their practical knowledge.
Q: Who can benefit from these NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology solutions chapter 3?
A:
The students who are preparing for their board exams or preparing for entrance exams can benefit from this.
Q: Why should one use the NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology solutions chapter 3?
A:
It provides the students with simple and stepwise answers to the questions present in the textbook will help them in preparing for the examination.
Q: What is the function of the placenta in human reproduction?
A:
The placenta's primary function in human reproduction is to facilitate the exchange of nutrients and oxygen from the mother to the developing fetus, while also removing waste products from the fetus, all while acting as a temporary endocrine organ that produces hormones essential for pregnancy.
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Hello Pruthvi,
Taking a drop year to reappear for the Karnataka Common Entrance Test (KCET) is a well-defined process. As a repeater, you are fully eligible to take the exam again to improve your score and secure a better rank for admissions.
The main procedure involves submitting a new application for the KCET through the official Karnataka Examinations Authority (KEA) website when registrations open for the next academic session. You must pay the required application fee and complete all formalities just like any other candidate. A significant advantage for you is that you do not need to retake your 12th board exams. Your previously secured board marks in the qualifying subjects will be used again. Your new KCET rank will be calculated by combining these existing board marks with your new score from the KCET exam. Therefore, your entire focus during this year should be on preparing thoroughly for the KCET to achieve a higher score.
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For the 12th CBSE Hindi Medium board exam, important questions usually come from core chapters like “Madhushala”, “Jhansi ki Rani”, and “Bharat ki Khoj”.
Questions often include essay writing, letter writing, and comprehension passages. Grammar topics like Tenses, Voice Change, and Direct-Indirect Speech are frequently asked.
Students should practice poetry questions on themes and meanings. Important questions also cover summary writing and translation from Hindi to English or vice versa.
Previous years’ question papers help identify commonly asked questions.
Focus on writing practice to improve handwriting and presentation. Time management during exams is key to answering all questions effectively.
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|
How many moles of magnesium phosphate, will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms?
| Option 1)
0.02 |
Option 2)
3.125 × 10-2 |
| Option 3)
1.25 × 10-2 |
Option 4)
2.5 × 10-2 |
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