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NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

Edited By Irshad Anwar | Updated on Apr 25, 2025 02:55 PM IST | #CBSE Class 12th

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction: The chapter provides an in-depth understanding of human reproduction, covering all the important topics, starting from gametogenesis to parturition. This chapter is important for students preparing for board exams and medical entrance exams. The exemplar solutions include well-structured answers along with diagrammatic explanations. The answers are designed to improve conceptual clarity and problem-solving skills. The NCERT exemplar solutions provide a variety of objective-type questions and their answers to test the application of concepts in real-life scenarios.

This Story also Contains
  1. NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction Solutions
  2. Access to NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction Solutions- Long Answer Type Questions:
  3. Explore the NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction Solutions- Short Answer Type Questions:
  4. Get the NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction Solutions- Very Short Answer Type Questions:
  5. NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction Solutions- Multiple Choice Questions:
  6. Important Topics and Sub-topics in NCERT Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction
  7. Most Important Questions Class 12 Biology Chapter 3
  8. Approach to solve Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 3: Human Reproduction
  9. NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter Wise
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction
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Studying the MCQs regularly enhances analytical thinking and accuracy exams by consistently working through these resources. Students can ensure a strong understanding of Human Reproduction, and improve their overall biology scores. These exemplar solutions give an extra edge to the students while attempting the problems given in the NCERT Class 12 Biology Book.

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction Solutions

The solved exemplar questions are given below-

Access to NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction Solutions- Long Answer Type Questions:

Question:1

What role do pituitary gonadotropins play during follicular and ovulatory phases of the menstrual cycle? Explain the shifts in steroidal secretions.

Answer:

Pituitary gonadotropins (FSH and LH) play a very vital role during the follicular and ovulatory phases of the menstrual cycle.

  • FSH stimulates the release of ovum from the Graafian follicle. It also stimulates the development and subsequent rupture of the Graafian follicle. Thus, FSH plays a major role during the follicular and ovulatory phases.
  • The above figure shows varying levels of LH. FSH and steroid hormones during follicular and ovulation phases of the menstrual cycle.
  • At this stage, the level of estradiol (a steroid hormone) increases. This suppresses the level of the Luteinizing hormone (LH). Once the level of estradiol reaches a threshold level, the effect is reversed.
  • After that, the level of estrogen (another steroid hormone) increases. This stimulates a surge in levels of LH. A high level of LH stimulates the development of the corpus luteum and proliferation of the endometrium, thus, marking the beginning of the luteal phases.
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Question:2

Meiotic division during oogenesis is different from that in spermatogenesis. Explain how and why.

Answer:

It is true that the meiotic division during oogenesis is different from that in spermatogenesis. Following are the details about the significant differences between them:

  • In the case of spermatogenesis, meiotic division begins at the time of puberty. This is the time when spermatogenesis begins in a male. On the other hand, oogenesis begins in the female when the female is still in the womb. Thus, it can be said that meiotic division during oogenesis begins when the girl child is still in the womb.
  • The formation of primary oocytes stops by the 20th week of gestation of the female child. On the contrary, the production of spermatocytes continues throughout the reproductive phase of a male.
  • All the stages of meiosis take place quickly after one another in case of spermatogenesis and there is no time lag between them. In the case of oogenesis, meiosis is deferred at the Prophase I state.

Meiosis resumes only once puberty begins.
Following are some possible reasons for this difference in patterns of oogenesis and spermatogenesis:

  • Male gametes need to be formed in very large numbers to ensure Fertilisation.
  • Female gametes are not exposed to external hazards, and hence a smaller number of them would be enough. Limiting the production of female gametes helps in the conservation of resources from the female body. The resources can then be properly utilised during the development of the foetus.

Question:3

The zygote passes through several developmental stages till implantation, Describe each stage briefly with suitable diagrams.

Answer:

The following figure shows various stages of zygote development till implantation:
Stages of oocytes
(a) The zygote divides into a two-cell stage called cleavage. This development takes place when the zygote is still in the isthmus.
(b) The cleavage undergoes further rounds of mitosis to form 2, 4, 8 and finally 16-celled stage.
These daughter cells are called blastomere.
(c) The 16-celled stage is known as morula.
(d) The morula changes into a blastocyst; with more rounds of meiosis. At this stage, the blastomeres are arranged in an outer layer of cells; called trophoblast and an inner mass of cells.
(e) Implantation to the uterine wall happens at the blastocyst stage.

Question:4

Draw a neat diagram of the female reproductive system and label the parts associated with the following
(a) production of gamete,
(b) site of fertilisation
(c) site of implantation and,
(d) birth canal.

Answer:

Female reproductive system

Question:5

With a suitable diagram, describe the organisation of the mammary gland.

Answer:

Mammary glands are paired structures which contain glandular tissue and a variable amount of fat.

Mammary Gland

  • Glandular tissue present in each breast is made up of 15 - 20 mammary lobes. These lobes have clusters of cells known as alveoli.
  • Milk, stored in the cavities (lumens) of alveoli, is secreted from the cells of alveoli. The alveoli open in mammary tubules.
  • Tubules from each lobe join to form a mammary duct.
  • Many mammary ducts join to form a wider mammary ampulla.
  • A mammary ampulla is connected to the lactiferous duct. Milk is sucked out through the lactiferous duct.

Explore the NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction Solutions- Short Answer Type Questions:

Question:1

A human female experiences two major changes, menarche, and menopause during her life. Mention the significance of both events.

Answer:

Menarche marks the onset of puberty (the beginning of the reproductive phase).
Menopause marks the end of the reproductive phase.

Question:2

a. How many spermatozoa are formed from one secondary spermatocyte?

b. Where does the first cleavage division of the zygote take place?

Answer:

(a) One secondary spermatocyte forms four spermatids, all of which subsequently develop into spermatozoa via the process of spermiogenesis.
(b) The first cleavage division of the zygote takes place in the ampullary-isthmus junction.

Question:4

Corpus luteum in pregnancy has a long life. However, if Fertilisation does not take place, it remains active only for 10-12 days. Explain.

Answer:

Corpus luteum is responsible for the secretion of progesterone, which is essential to maintain the endometrium and helps in the proper development of the foetus.
This is the reason for the long life of Corpus luteum when Fertilisation has occurred. However, when there is no fertilisation, it serves no purpose and thus remains active only for 10-12 days

Question:4

What is the foetal ejection reflex? Explain how it leads to parturition.

Answer:

The foetal ejection reflex is the mild uterine contraction at the time of childbirth. It triggers the release of oxytocin from the maternal pituitary, which induces strong uterine contraction and finally leads to parturition.

Question:5

Except for the endocrine function, what are the other functions of the placenta?

Answer:

The placenta is responsible for the following in addition to its endocrine function –
(A) Supply of oxygen and nutrients to foetus
(B) Removal of waste products from the foetus

Question:6

Why do doctors recommend breastfeeding during the initial period of infant growth?

Answer:

Milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is known as colostrum and contains several antibodies, which are important for the development of disease resistance in the baby. This is the prime reason why doctors recommend breastfeeding during the initial period of growth of an infant.

Question:7

What are the events that take place in the ovary and uterus during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle?

Answer:

During the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, the following things happen in the ovary and the uterus –

  1. The primary follicle in the ovary grows into a fully mature Graafian follicle
  2. Endometrium in the uterus regenerates through the proliferation
  3. Estrogen is secreted by growing follicles.

Question:8

Given below is a flow chart showing ovarian changes during the menstrual cycle. Fill in the spaces giving the name of the hormones responsible for the events shown.

Answer:

Hormones responsible for various changes during the menstrual cycle are:

  1. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH): It is responsible for the transformation of the primary follicle into the Graafian follicle.
  2. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH): It is also responsible for ovulation. It works in coordination with LH and complements its function.
  3. Luteinizing Hormone (LH): It is responsible for the development of the corpus luteum from the Graafian follicle.

Question:10

What are the changes in the oogonia during the transition of a primary follicle to a Graafian follicle?

Answer:

Following changes occur in the oogonia during the transition of a primary follicle to a Graafian follicle:
(a) Each primary oocyte is surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells; called a primary follicle
(b) Primary follicle transforms into secondary follicle by getting surrounded by another layer of granulosa cells and a new theca.
(c) The secondary follicle then transforms into the tertiary follicle. The tertiary follicle is characterised by a fluid-filled cavity called the antrum. At this stage, the primary oocyte undergoes a second meiotic division and forms a secondary oocyte and a tiny polar body.
(d) The tertiary follicle then changes into a mature Graafian follicle. During this stage, a new layer; called zona pellucida; develops around the secondary oocyte.

Get the NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction Solutions- Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question:1

Given below are the events in human reproduction. Write them in the correct sequential order. Insemination, gametogenesis, Fertilisation, parturition, gestation, implantation

Answer:

Gametogenesis→Insemination→Fertilization→Implantation→Gestation→Parturition

Question:3

What is the role of the cervix in the human female reproductive system

Answer:

The cervix and vagina together form the birth canal. Parturition happens through the birth canal.

Question:4

Why are menstrual cycles absent during pregnancy?

Answer:

Gonadotropins, which are required for the development of new follicles, are suppressed due to the high levels of progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy. This inhibits the initiation of a new menstrual cycle.

Question:5

Female reproductive organs and associated functions are given below in columns A and B. Fill the blank boxes.

Column A
Column B
Ovaries
Oviduct
B
Vagina
Ovulation
A
Pregnancy
Birth


Answer:

A. Fertilisation
B. Uterus

Question:6

From where do the parturition signals arise or the foetus? Mention the main hormone involved in parturition

Answer:

Parturition signals arise from the foetus. Oxytocin is the main hormone involved in parturition and is released from the maternal pituitary gland.

Question:7

What is the significance of epididymis in male fertility?

Answer:

Secretions from the epididymis, vas deferens, prostate and seminal vesicle are essential for the maturation and motility of sperms. These organs play an important role in male fertility.

Question:8

Give the names and functions of the hormones involved in the process of spermatogenesis. Write the names of the endocrine glands from where they are released.

Answer:

Hormone
Function
Hormone’s origin
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
Act on the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the release of LH and FSH
Hypothalamus
Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
Acts at Leydig cells and stimulates the secretion of androgen
Pituitary
Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
Acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates factors which are involved in spermatogenesis
Pituitary


Question:10

During reproduction, the chromosome number (2n) reduces to half (n) in the gametes, and again the original number (2n) is restored in the offspring, what are the processes through which these events take place?

Answer:

Chromosome number reduces to half in gametes as, during gametogenesis, meiosis takes place resulting in the haploid number of chromosomes.
During Fertilisation, male and female gametes undergo fusion to make the diploid zygote.


Question:11

What is the difference between a primary oocyte and a secondary oocyte?

Answer:

Primary Oocyte
Secondary Oocyte
The primary oocyte is formed when the female is still in the womb
A secondary oocyte is formed when the individual undergoes puberty
It is surrounded by a secondary follicle
It is surrounded by tertiary follicle
The number of chromosomes is 46
The number of chromosomes is 23



Question:12

What is the significance of ampullary-isthmic junction in the female reproductive tract?

Answer:

The first cleavage division of the zygote occurs in the ampullary-isthmic junction in the female reproductive tract

Question:13

How does zona pellucida of ovum help in preventing polyspermy?

Answer:

Zona pellucida’s membrane undergoes changes when sperm comes into contact with it. This prevents the entry of other sperm into the ovum and thus prevents polyspermy.

Question:14

Mention the importance of LH surge during the menstrual cycle.

Answer:

The rupture of the Graafian follicle is induced by a rapid surge in LH level. Resulting in the release of ovum (ovulation)

Question:15

Which type of cell division forms spermatids from the secondary spermatocytes?

Answer:

Meiosis results in the formation of spermatids from secondary spermatocytes.

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction Solutions- Multiple Choice Questions:

Question:1

Choose the incorrect statement from the following:
a. In birds and mammals, internal Fertilisation takes place
b. Colostrum contains antibodies and nutrients
c. Polyspermy in mammals is prevented by the chemical changes in the egg surfaced.

d. In the human female implantation occurs almost seven days after Fertilisation

Answer:

The answer is option (c) Polyspermy in mammals is prevented by the chemical changes in the egg surface
Explanation: Zona pellucida absorbs water and swells preventing further entry of sperms. So, physical change rather than chemical change is responsible for the prevention of polyspermy in mammals.

Question:2

Identify the correct statement from the following:
a. High levels of estrogen trigger the ovulatory surge.
b. Oogonial cells start to proliferate and give rise to functional ova in regular cycles from puberty onwards.
c. Sperms released from seminiferous tubules are highly motile.
d. Progesterone level is high during the post-ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle

Answer:

The answer is option (d) Progesterone level is high during the post-ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle
Explanation: Ovulatory surge is triggered by the high levels of LH and FSH. Sperms released from seminiferous tubules are non-motile. Oogonial cells stop their activity when the girl child is still in the womb.

Question:3

Spot the odd one out from the following structures with reference to the male reproductive system:
a. Rete testis
b. Epididymis
c. Vasa efferentia
d. Isthmus

Answer:

The answer is the option (d) Isthmus
Explanation: The Isthmus is a part of the oviduct in the female reproductive system. Others are parts of the male reproductive system

Question:4

Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen, is contributed by.
i. Seminal vesicle
ii. Prostate gland
iii. Urethra
iv. Bulbourethral gland
(a) i and ii (b) i, ii and iv (c) ii, iii and iv (d) i and iv

Answer:

The answer is the option (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Explanation: Urethra has no contribution to seminal plasma

Question:5

Spermiation is the process of the release of sperm from:
a. Seminiferous tubules
b. Vas deferens
c. Epididymis
d. Prostate gland

Answer:

The answer is the option (a) Seminiferous tubules
Explanation: Seminiferous tubules

Question:6

A mature Graafian follicle is generally present in the ovary of a healthy human female around:
a. 5 – 8 day of menstrual cycle
b. 11 – 17 days of the menstrual cycle
c. 18 – 23 days of menstrual cycle
d. 24 – 28 days of the menstrual cycle

Answer:

The answer is the option (b) 11-17 day of the menstrual cycle
Explanation: After rupturing in the Graafian follicle, ovulation takes place in this period

Question:7

The acrosomal reaction of the sperm occurs due to:
a. Its contact with zona pellucida of the ova
b. Reactions within the uterine environment of the female
c. Reactions within the epididymal environment of the male
d. Androgens produced in the uterus

Answer:

The answer is the option (a) Its contact with zona pellucida of the ova
Explanation: Sperm can enter the ova only after the enzyme from the acrosome breaks down the zona pellucida

Question:8

Which one of the following is not a male accessory gland?
a. Seminal vesicle
b. Ampulla
c. Prostate
d. Bulbourethral gland

Answer:

The answer is the option (b) Ampulla
Explanation: Ampulla is part of the fallopian tube

Question:9

The spermatogonia undergo division to produce sperm by the process of spermatogenesis. Choose the correct one with reference to athe bove.
a. Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes and always undergo meiotic cell division
b. Primary spermatocytes divide by mitotic cell division
c. Secondary spermatocytes have 23 chromosomes and undergo second meiotic division
d. Spermatozoa are transformed into spermatids

Answer:

The answer is option (c) Secondary spermatocytes have 23 chromosomes and undergo second meiotic division
Explanation: Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes, and they undergo meiotic cell division; primary spermatocytes undergo meiotic cell division. Spertamids and transformed into spermatozoa

Question:10

Match between the following representing parts of the sperm and their functions and choose the correct option.

Column I
A. Head
B. Middle piece
C. Acrosome
D. Tail
Column II
i. Enzymes
ii. Sperm motility
iii. Energy
iv. Genetic material

a. A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
b. A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
c. A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
d. A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

Answer:

The answer is the option (b) (A) – (iv), (B) – (iii), (C) – (i), (D) – (ii)
Explanation: The nucleus is present in the head. Acrosome releases enzyme which dissolves zona pellucida. The tail helps in the swimming of sperm and the middle piece is the place where mitochondria are present

Question:12

Match the following and choose the correct options:

Column I
A. Trophoblast
B. Cleavage
C. Inner cell mass
D. Implantation
Column II
i. Embedding of the blastocyst in the endometrium
ii. Group of cells that would differentiate
as embryo
iii. The outer layer of the blastocyst attached to the
endometrium
iv. Mitotic division of the zygote

a. A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
b. A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
c. A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
d. A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i

Answer:

The answer is the option (b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)

Question:13

Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the human placenta?

a. hCG
b. Estrogens
c. Progesterone
d. LH

Answer:

The answer is the option (d) LH
Explanation: LH (Luteinizing hormone) is secreted by the pituitary gland

Question:14

The vas deferens receives duct from the seminal vesicle and opens into the urethra as:
a. Epididymis
b. Ejaculatory duct
c. Efferent ductule
d. Ureter

Answer:

The answer is the option (b) Ejaculatory duct

Question:15

Urethral meatus refers to the:
a. Urinogenital duct
b. Opening of vas deferens into urethra
c. The external opening of the urinogenital duct
d. Muscles surrounding the urinogenital duct

Answer:

The answer is the option (c) External opening of the urinogenital duct
Explanation: External opening of the urinogenital duct

Question:16

Morula is a developmental stage:
a. Between the zygote and blastocyst
b. Between the blastocyst and gastrula
c. After the implantation
d. Between implantation and parturition

Answer:

The answer is the option (a) between the zygote and blastocyst
Explanation: between the zygote and blastocyst

Question:17

The membranous cover of the ovum at ovulation is:
a. Corona Radiata
b. Zona radiata
c. Zona pellucida
d. Chorion

Answer:

The answer is the option (a) corona radiata

Question:18

Identify the odd one from the following:
a. Labia minora
b. Fimbriae
c. Infundibulum
d. Isthmus

Answer:

The answer is the option (a) Labia Minora

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Solutions Subject Wise:

Important Topics and Sub-topics in NCERT Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

The topics and subtopics of the chapter are given below-

  • The Male Reproductive System
  • The Female Reproductive System
  • Gametogenesis
  • Menstrual Cycle
  • Fertilisation and Implantation
  • Pregnancy and Embryonic Development
  • Parturition and Lactation
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Also, read NCERT Solution subject-wise

JEE Main Important Mathematics Formulas

As per latest 2024 syllabus. Maths formulas, equations, & theorems of class 11 & 12th chapters

Most Important Questions Class 12 Biology Chapter 3

Here are some of the most important questions from this chapter that will help you prepare effectively for the exam.

Question 1: Which of the following is not a component of Fallopian tube?

A. Uterine fundus

B. Isthmus

C. Infundibulum

D. Ampulla

Answer:

The correct answer is option (1) as the uterine fundus is the upper, dome-shaped part of the uterus, above
the opening of fallopian tubes.
• Option (2) is incorrect as the isthmus is the last and narrow part of the oviduct that links to the uterus.
• Option (3) is incorrect as the infundibulum is the part of the oviduct that is closer to the ovary.
• Option (4) is incorrect as the ampulla is the wider part of the oviduct.

Question 2: Which hormones are exclusively produced by the placenta, without involvement from the ovary in pregnant women?

Answer:

Human Placental Lactogen and Estrogen are the hormones produced exclusively by the placenta during pregnancy. These hormones play vital roles in maintaining the pregnancy, supporting fetal development, and regulating various physiological changes in the mother's body.

Question 3: Which male reproductive system impairment may not always result in sterility?

Answer:

The obstruction of the bulbourethral glands may affect the reproductive system, but it doesn't always make a person sterile. While it can impact semen quality, it doesn't directly affect the production or transportation of sperm. Therefore, fertility may still be possible even with this obstruction.

Question 4:What is the type of placenta found in human beings during the initial stage of pregnancy, specifically before the completion of the first trimester?

Answer:

In human pregnancy, the placenta is formed by the fusion of the chorion (embryonic tissue) and the uterine wall. The type of placenta is classified based on the arrangement and interaction of the maternal and fetal tissues.

During the initial stage of pregnancy, before the completion of the first trimester, the human placenta is characterized by an epithelio-chorial type of attachment. This means that there are several layers of epithelial tissue from both the fetal chorion and the maternal uterine lining that are in direct contact with each other.

The term "diffuse" refers to the distribution of chorionic villi (finger-like projections from the chorion) throughout the entire surface of the placenta, providing a large area for nutrient exchange between the maternal and fetal bloodstreams.

Question 5: In which specific mammalian organ does the yellow corpus luteum primarily occur?

Answer:

The yellow corpus luteum primarily occurs in the ovary of mammals for the purpose of progesterone secretion. After ovulation occurs, the ruptured follicle in the ovary transforms into a structure called the corpus luteum. The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine gland that secretes progesterone. It forms a yellowish mass, hence referred to as the yellow corpus luteum. Progesterone is an important hormone involved in regulating the menstrual cycle and supporting pregnancy. It prepares the uterus for the implantation of a fertilized egg and helps to maintain the uterine lining during early pregnancy.

Must Read NCERT Notes subject-wise

Approach to solve Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 3: Human Reproduction

  • Firstly, students need to understand the basic structure of the male and female reproductive systems, with a focus on different organs, and all hormones involved.
  • After that, study the processes step-by-step, such as gametogenesis, fertilization, implantation, pregnancy, and parturition. These can be easily learn by making the flow charts.
  • Practice the well-labeled diagrams of human sperm, ovum, female reproductive system, and stages of embryonic development to get a clear vision of this chapter.
  • Read the NCERT textbook line by line, as many questions appear from this in the exam.
  • Solve Previous Year Questions, all different types of questions, and sample papers to get familiar with the pattern and important topics.

Also Check NCERT Books and NCERT Syllabus here

The NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions of Human Reproduction thoroughly explains the human reproductive system, including the structure and function of male and female reproductive organs. The chapter covers all the essential processes such as gametogenesis, hormonal regulation, menstrual cycle and embryonic development. The exemplar solutions provide detailed explanations with label diagrams, which make sure a strong conceptual foundation is built. Practising these objective-type questions helps students test their understanding and improve their problem-solving skills. Thus, these questions and answers prove to be excellent study material for both board as well as entrance exam preparation.

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter Wise

The chapter-wise solutions for all chapters of Class 12 Biology are given below:-


Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. How can students download these NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology solutions chapter 3?

The students can download the solutions in the pdf format by using the webpage to pdf tool available online at free of cost.

2. Who can benefit from these NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology solutions chapter 3?

The students who are preparing for their board exams or preparing for entrance exams can benefit from this.

3. How are these questions solved by the experts?

The experts use the chapters and also the information that is provided to them along with their practical knowledge.

4. Why should one use the NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology solutions chapter 3?

It provides the students with simple and stepwise answers to the questions present in the textbook will help them in preparing for the examination.

5. What are the key topics covered in Chapter 3 Human Reproduction NCERT Exemplar?

Chapter 3, "Human Reproduction," in the NCERT Exemplar for Class 12 Biology, delves into the intricacies of human reproduction, covering the male and female reproductive systems, gametogenesis, fertilization, pregnancy, and reproductive health.

6. What is the function of the placenta in human reproduction?

The placenta's primary function in human reproduction is to facilitate the exchange of nutrients and oxygen from the mother to the developing fetus, while also removing waste products from the fetus, all while acting as a temporary endocrine organ that produces hormones essential for pregnancy.

7. How does spermatogenesis differ from oogenesis?

Spermatogenesis produces four motile sperm from one diploid cell, while oogenesis produces one non-motile egg (ovum) and three polar bodies from a single diploid cell, with oogenesis also occurring in the ovaries while spermatogenesis occurs in the testes. 

8. What are the different stages of embryonic development in humans?

Human embryonic development, also known as embryogenesis, encompasses several key stages: fertilization, cleavage, blastocyst formation, implantation, gastrulation, and organogenesis, ultimately leading to the formation of a fetus.

9. How is the menstrual cycle regulated in females?

The menstrual cycle is regulated by a complex interplay of hormones, starting with the hypothalamus, which releases GnRH, stimulating the pituitary gland to release FSH and LH, which in turn influence the ovaries and uterus.

10. What are the functions of different hormones in human reproduction?

In human reproduction, key hormones like estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone, along with follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), regulate puberty, fertility, and sexual development, while others like prolactin and oxytocin play roles in childbirth and lactation.

11. What is the significance of fertilization and implantation?

Fertilization and implantation are crucial for reproduction, as fertilization creates a zygote (a single-celled embryo) and implantation allows the embryo to attach to the uterine wall, initiating pregnancy and providing nourishment for development.

12. How do NCERT Exemplar questions help in Class 12 Biology exam preparation?

NCERT Exemplar questions are crucial for Class 12 Biology exam preparation as they provide a higher level of practice and deeper understanding of concepts, helping students excel in both board and competitive exams.

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Ah, you're looking for CBSE quarterly question papers for mathematics, right? Those can be super helpful for exam prep.

Unfortunately, CBSE doesn't officially release quarterly papers - they mainly put out sample papers and previous years' board exam papers. But don't worry, there are still some good options to help you practice!

Have you checked out the CBSE sample papers on their official website? Those are usually pretty close to the actual exam format. You could also look into previous years' board exam papers - they're great for getting a feel for the types of questions that might come up.

If you're after more practice material, some textbook publishers release their own mock papers which can be useful too.

Let me know if you need any other tips for your math prep. Good luck with your studies!

It's understandable to feel disheartened after facing a compartment exam, especially when you've invested significant effort. However, it's important to remember that setbacks are a part of life, and they can be opportunities for growth.

Possible steps:

  1. Re-evaluate Your Study Strategies:

    • Identify Weak Areas: Pinpoint the specific topics or concepts that caused difficulties.
    • Seek Clarification: Reach out to teachers, tutors, or online resources for additional explanations.
    • Practice Regularly: Consistent practice is key to mastering chemistry.
  2. Consider Professional Help:

    • Tutoring: A tutor can provide personalized guidance and support.
    • Counseling: If you're feeling overwhelmed or unsure about your path, counseling can help.
  3. Explore Alternative Options:

    • Retake the Exam: If you're confident in your ability to improve, consider retaking the chemistry compartment exam.
    • Change Course: If you're not interested in pursuing chemistry further, explore other academic options that align with your interests.
  4. Focus on NEET 2025 Preparation:

    • Stay Dedicated: Continue your NEET preparation with renewed determination.
    • Utilize Resources: Make use of study materials, online courses, and mock tests.
  5. Seek Support:

    • Talk to Friends and Family: Sharing your feelings can provide comfort and encouragement.
    • Join Study Groups: Collaborating with peers can create a supportive learning environment.

Remember: This is a temporary setback. With the right approach and perseverance, you can overcome this challenge and achieve your goals.

I hope this information helps you.







Hi,

Qualifications:
Age: As of the last registration date, you must be between the ages of 16 and 40.
Qualification: You must have graduated from an accredited board or at least passed the tenth grade. Higher qualifications are also accepted, such as a diploma, postgraduate degree, graduation, or 11th or 12th grade.
How to Apply:
Get the Medhavi app by visiting the Google Play Store.
Register: In the app, create an account.
Examine Notification: Examine the comprehensive notification on the scholarship examination.
Sign up to Take the Test: Finish the app's registration process.
Examine: The Medhavi app allows you to take the exam from the comfort of your home.
Get Results: In just two days, the results are made public.
Verification of Documents: Provide the required paperwork and bank account information for validation.
Get Scholarship: Following a successful verification process, the scholarship will be given. You need to have at least passed the 10th grade/matriculation scholarship amount will be transferred directly to your bank account.

Scholarship Details:

Type A: For candidates scoring 60% or above in the exam.

Type B: For candidates scoring between 50% and 60%.

Type C: For candidates scoring between 40% and 50%.

Cash Scholarship:

Scholarships can range from Rs. 2,000 to Rs. 18,000 per month, depending on the marks obtained and the type of scholarship exam (SAKSHAM, SWABHIMAN, SAMADHAN, etc.).

Since you already have a 12th grade qualification with 84%, you meet the qualification criteria and are eligible to apply for the Medhavi Scholarship exam. Make sure to prepare well for the exam to maximize your chances of receiving a higher scholarship.

Hope you find this useful!

hello mahima,

If you have uploaded screenshot of your 12th board result taken from CBSE official website,there won,t be a problem with that.If the screenshot that you have uploaded is clear and legible. It should display your name, roll number, marks obtained, and any other relevant details in a readable forma.ALSO, the screenshot clearly show it is from the official CBSE results portal.

hope this helps.

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A block of mass 0.50 kg is moving with a speed of 2.00 ms-1 on a smooth surface. It strikes another mass of 1.00 kg and then they move together as a single body. The energy loss during the collision is

Option 1)

0.34\; J

Option 2)

0.16\; J

Option 3)

1.00\; J

Option 4)

0.67\; J

A person trying to lose weight by burning fat lifts a mass of 10 kg upto a height of 1 m 1000 times.  Assume that the potential energy lost each time he lowers the mass is dissipated.  How much fat will he use up considering the work done only when the weight is lifted up ?  Fat supplies 3.8×107 J of energy per kg which is converted to mechanical energy with a 20% efficiency rate.  Take g = 9.8 ms−2 :

Option 1)

2.45×10−3 kg

Option 2)

 6.45×10−3 kg

Option 3)

 9.89×10−3 kg

Option 4)

12.89×10−3 kg

 

An athlete in the olympic games covers a distance of 100 m in 10 s. His kinetic energy can be estimated to be in the range

Option 1)

2,000 \; J - 5,000\; J

Option 2)

200 \, \, J - 500 \, \, J

Option 3)

2\times 10^{5}J-3\times 10^{5}J

Option 4)

20,000 \, \, J - 50,000 \, \, J

A particle is projected at 600   to the horizontal with a kinetic energy K. The kinetic energy at the highest point

Option 1)

K/2\,

Option 2)

\; K\;

Option 3)

zero\;

Option 4)

K/4

In the reaction,

2Al_{(s)}+6HCL_{(aq)}\rightarrow 2Al^{3+}\, _{(aq)}+6Cl^{-}\, _{(aq)}+3H_{2(g)}

Option 1)

11.2\, L\, H_{2(g)}  at STP  is produced for every mole HCL_{(aq)}  consumed

Option 2)

6L\, HCl_{(aq)}  is consumed for ever 3L\, H_{2(g)}      produced

Option 3)

33.6 L\, H_{2(g)} is produced regardless of temperature and pressure for every mole Al that reacts

Option 4)

67.2\, L\, H_{2(g)} at STP is produced for every mole Al that reacts .

How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg_{3}(PO_{4})_{2} will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms?

Option 1)

0.02

Option 2)

3.125 × 10-2

Option 3)

1.25 × 10-2

Option 4)

2.5 × 10-2

If we consider that 1/6, in place of 1/12, mass of carbon atom is taken to be the relative atomic mass unit, the mass of one mole of a substance will

Option 1)

decrease twice

Option 2)

increase two fold

Option 3)

remain unchanged

Option 4)

be a function of the molecular mass of the substance.

With increase of temperature, which of these changes?

Option 1)

Molality

Option 2)

Weight fraction of solute

Option 3)

Fraction of solute present in water

Option 4)

Mole fraction.

Number of atoms in 558.5 gram Fe (at. wt.of Fe = 55.85 g mol-1) is

Option 1)

twice that in 60 g carbon

Option 2)

6.023 × 1022

Option 3)

half that in 8 g He

Option 4)

558.5 × 6.023 × 1023

A pulley of radius 2 m is rotated about its axis by a force F = (20t - 5t2) newton (where t is measured in seconds) applied tangentially. If the moment of inertia of the pulley about its axis of rotation is 10 kg m2 , the number of rotations made by the pulley before its direction of motion if reversed, is

Option 1)

less than 3

Option 2)

more than 3 but less than 6

Option 3)

more than 6 but less than 9

Option 4)

more than 9

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