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NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Edited By Priyanka kumari | Updated on Aug 26, 2022 10:49 AM IST | #CBSE Class 12th

NCERT exemplar Class 12 Biology solutions chapter 4 Reproductive Health is one of the most crucial chapters from the examination point of view. The professionals in the field who have deep knowledge and understanding in the field have prepared NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology chapter 4 solutions to provide acute information. When the experts prepared these NCERT Class 12 Solutions, they used simple and understanding language to prepare. Students refer to this study material to get the best learning experience. NCERT exemplar Class 12 Biology solutions chapter 4 pdf download is useful to access it online.

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Long Answer Type Questions:

Question:1

What are the Assisted Reproductive Techniques practised to help infertile couples? Describe any three techniques

Answer:

Three different Assisted Reproductive Techniques:
a. IVF (In-vitro Fertilization): Sperm and ovum are taken out of male and female body respectively and then allowed to go for fertilisation in a laboratory.
b. ET (Embryo Transfer): This step is performed after IVF. There are mainly two methods of Embryo Transfer. For zygotes up to 8 blastomeres are transferred into the fallopian tube, this technique is known as ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer). The second technique is known as Intra-Uterine Transfer (IUT), where blastocyst is transferred into the uterus.
c. GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer): In this technique, the ovum is collected from a donor and transferred into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce.

Question:2

Discuss the mode of action and advantages/disadvantages of hormonal contraceptives.

Answer:

Mode of Action of Hormonal Contraceptives: These contraceptives are used to prevent ovulation and implantation. These contraceptives alter the properties of cervical mucus and prevent the entry of sperm inside the uterus.
Advantages: They are available as pills and do not affect the sexual life of the couple. And they have fewer side effects.
Disadvantages: These contraceptives don’t show any immediate effect but can have long-term effects such as; increased cholesterol level and cause obesity. They can also change the menstrual cycle in some cases. Some other side effects are abdominal pain, nausea, irregular menstrual bleeding and in some extreme cases, breast cancer also.

Question:3

STDs are a threat to reproductive health. Describe any two such diseases and suggest preventive measures.

Answer:

Trichomoniasis: A protozoon named Trichomonas Vaginalis is the root cause of this disease. Common symptoms of this disease are whitish discharge from the vagina, foul smell, and constant itching. Male is known to be the carrier of this parasite, and females suffer from this disease. Therefore, both partners should be treated with sufficient medication.
Prevention of Trichomoniasis: The disease can be prevented by maintaining good hygiene of sexual organs, especially during menstruation in women. It can also be prevented by using barrier method during coitus.
AIDS: Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome effects on one’s immune system and is transferred due to sexual activity or intercourse. This disease can lead to certain death.
Prevention of AIDS:
  • Avoid sexual contact with multiple persons/partners
  • Using disposable syringes and needles
  • During a blood transfusion, take proper precautions
  • Use of barrier contraceptives during coitus

Question:4

Do you justify the statutory ban on amniocentesis in our country? Give reasons.

Answer:

Amniocentesis is a method through which any abnormalities in the foetus can be detected. But in our country, it has been used as malpractice to find the gender of the unborn child. In India, a girl child is not the most sought for. People take advantage of MTP to discover the gender of the unborn child. Males child are given preference; this has led to killing the girl child in the womb. The sex ratio of some states in the country is very much skewed, such as in Haryana and Punjab. Boys, there grow with a mindset of very less respect for women. This is the root cause of rape, dowry deaths, and gender inequality. This trend has to stop, and the only solution is a ban over Amniocentesis. Only this can do justice to the female population in the country and give them equal treatment as the male population.

Question:5

Enumerate and describe any five reasons for introducing sex education to school-going children.

Answer:

Listed below are the five reasons for introducing sex education in schools:
a. Addressing Curiosity of Adolescents: The impression on the mind of any information is high on school-going children. Any wrong information can lead to a long-lasting impression on their mind. This can lead to highly wrongdoings, especially for their reproductive health.
b. Aspects of reproductive health: Reproductive health not only has effects in a physical sense but also on social, behavioural, and psychological health.
c. Producing better adults: Students who are given sex education at the right point in their lives grow to be better adults. This results in a better love life, marriage, and childbearing (family size). They are going to respect the privacy of others.
d. Reduction is chances of STDs: Proper awareness about reproduction system will help them to reduce the prevalence of STDs. This will help them to give up the stigma and go to the doctor at the right time.
e. Family Planning: Small families are better families, socially and economically. Students will learn this fact properly.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question:1

Suggest some important steps that you would recommend being taken to improve the reproductive health standards in India.

Answer:

Following are the steps that are recommended to improve reproductive health standards amongst Indians:
  • Girls and Boys should be given education-related to reproduction aspects right from the school levels.
  • Child marriage should be prevented.
  • Avoiding female foeticide.
  • MTP monitoring and strict regulations regarding the same.
  • Free contraceptives for poor people.
  • Proper healthcare should be provided in small villages

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Question:2

The procedure of GIFT involves the transfer of female gamete to the fallopian tube. Can gametes be transferred to the uterus to achieve the same result? Explain.

Answer:

To understand the process of transfer of the gametes of the uterus, we need to recall the process of insemination to implantation. The process happens in the following stages:
  • Ovum enters the fallopian tube after ovulation.
  • To fertilise the egg, the sperm needs to enter ampulla as fertilisation cannot happen inside the uterus.
  • Once the fertilisation is done, mitosis of zygote happens several times and blastocyst is produced.
  • Everything happens inside ampulla and isthmus of the fallopian tube.
  • After this, blastocyst reaches uterus and implantation takes place.
The stages indicate that GIFT includes the transfer of female gemmate to the fallopian tube and not to the uterus.

Question:3

Copper ions-releasing IUDs are more efficient than non-medicated methods. Why?

Answer:

Ans. Phagocytosis of sperm is initiated because of IUDs, hence preventing conception. Lippes loop (non-medicated IUDs) work on this concept. Whereas copper-releasing IUDs provide added benefits over the effects of normal IUDs; copper is known for suppressing sperm motility. And therefore, sperms are unable to reach the fallopian tube. Some sperms can reach the fallopian tube in case of normal IUDs. This will result in failure rates of IUDs. Thus, copper releasing IUDs are superior to normal IUDs, and they are more efficient.

Question:4

What are the probable factors that contributed to the population explosion in India?

Answer:

There are many factors that have overpopulated India. Some of the reasons for the population in India are mentioned below:
  • Under-age marriages in many parts of the country.
  • Child-less couples have to face many social dissimilarities. Having a child is considered to be a necessary obligation from social and religious prospects.
  • Uneducated population and lack of awareness is a major factor of issue.
  • Good food production and improving healthcare facilities from the 1950s have led to a reduction in IMR and MMR.
  • In small families, having more children is considered as assets; they could work and increase the income of the family.

Question:5

Briefly explain IVF and ET. What are the conditions in which these methods are advised?

Answer:

In-vitro fertilisation is also known as IVF, where sperm and ovum are taken out of the body of male and female (donor) and fertilised in laboratories, likely in a petri dish. ET or embryo transfer is the next step performed after IVF. An embryo of up to 8 blastomeric stages is transferred to the fallopian tube. The embryo of more than 8 blastomeric stages is taken to the uterus. The babies born out of this method are often called as test-tube babies as fertilisation, and some development of the zygote takes place in the laboratory. This method is only used when medical treatment and psychotherapy fails, and couples fail in conception. These methods are also known as Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART). The extremely high degree of precision is required in this method with highly specialised doctors. Also, these techniques are very costly to install; hence they are only available at very few centres across the country.

Question:6

What are the advantages of natural methods of contraception over artificial methods?

Answer:

Advantages of natural methods of conception over artificial methods are as follows: -
  • Cost-effectiveness
  • There are no side effects
  • Normal sexual life of a couple is not disturbed

Question:7

What are the conditions in which the medical termination of pregnancy is advised?

Answer:

Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is advisable under the following cases: -
  • The pregnant lady or foetus has a risk of life
  • Teratogenic defects in the foetus
  • Unwanted pregnancy because of unsafe coitus

Question:8

Comment on the essential features required for an ideal contraceptive

Answer:

Features of an ideal contraceptive are as follows: - :
  • Cost-effective
  • Easy to use and handle
  • There should be no side effects
  • It should not interfere in normal sex-life of the couple

Question:9

All reproductive tract infections (RTIs) are STDs, but all STDs are not RTIs. Justify with example.

Answer:

All the Reproductive Tract Infection (RTIs) can be transmitted through coitus; therefore, all RTIs are STDs. But few of the STDs do not affect the reproduction system such as Hepatitis B., AIDS.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question:1

The method of directly injecting sperm into ovum in Assisted Reproductive Technology is called:
a. GIFT
b. ZIFT
c. ICSI
d. ET

Answer:

The answer is the option (c) ICSI
Explanation: Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) is the of directly injecting sperm into ovum aided with reproductive technology.

Question:2

Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will:
a. Cause a rapid increase in growth rate
b. Result in a decline in growth rate
c. Not cause a significant change in growth rate
d. Result in an explosive population

Answer:

The answer is the option (c) not change the growth rate significantly

Question:3

Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the:
a. Suppression of gonadotropins
b. Hypersecretion of gonadotropins
c. Suppression of gametic transport
d. Suppression of fertilisation

Answer:

The answer is the option (a) Suppression of gonadotropins

Question:4

Sterilisation techniques are generally fool-proof methods of contraception with least side effects. Yet, this is the last option for couples because:
i. It is almost irreversible
ii. Of the misconception that it will reduce sexual urge
iii. It is a surgical procedure
iv. Of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of the country
Choose the correct option:
a. i and iii
b. ii and iii
c. ii and iv
d. I, ii, iii and iv

Answer:

The answer is the option (d) i, ii, iii, & iv

Question:5

A national-level approach to building up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our country in:
a. the 1950s
b. The 1960s
c. The 1980s
d. The 1990s

Answer:

The answer is the option (a) 1950

Question:6

Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within:
a. 72 hrs of coitus
b. 72 hrs of ovulation
c. 72 hrs of menstruation
d. 72 hrs of implantation

Answer:

The answer is the option (a) 72 hours of Coitus

Question:7

Choose the right one among the statements given below:
a. IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
b. IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
c. IUDs suppress gametogenesis
d. IUDs once inserted need not be replaced

Answer:

The answer is the option (b) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
Explanation: IUD should be inserted by a qualified medical professional. Gametogenesis is not affected by IUD because IUD is placed at the junction of the uterus and fallopian tube, while ovulation takes place inside the ovaries. IUDs are also easy to remove without any effects.

Question:8

Following statements are given regarding MTP. Choose the correct options given below: -
i. MTPs are generally advised during the first trimester
ii. MTPs are used as a contraceptive method
iii. MTPs are always surgical
iv. MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical personnel
(a) ii and iii (b) ii and iii (c) i and iv (d) i and ii

Answer:

The answer is the option (c) i and iv
Explanation: Curettage of the foetus (by inserting a suitable tool in the uterus) is required for MTP, and all this does not include any surgery. MTP is usually carried out after the contraception is done; therefore it cannot be a contraceptive method. So, option (i) and (iv) are correct.

Question:9

From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not specifically affect the sex organs:
a. Syphilis
b. AIDS
c. Gonorrhoea
d. Genital warts

Answer:

The answer is the option (b) AIDS
Explanation: AIDS is a disease which is transmitted through sexual contact, but it only affects the immune system and not the reproductive system or any sex organs.

Question:10

Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons:
a. These are effective barriers for insemination
b. They do not interfere with coital act
c. These help in reducing the risk of STDs
d. All of the above

Answer:

The answer is the option (d) All of the above are correct.

Question:11

Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT procedure:
a. Ova collected from a female donor are transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote formation.
b. A zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the fallopian tube
c. A zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus
d. Ova collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus

Answer:

The answer is the option (b) A zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the fallopian tube.
Explanation: Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT), this is a process of transferring zygote into the fallopian tube. The zygote needs to be developed into blastocyst for any implantation to happen; hence, this would make the transfer useless.

Question:12

The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is:
a. Ovariectomy
b. Hysterectomy
c. Vasectomy
d. Castration

Answer:

The answer is the option (c) Vasectomy
Explanation: Ovariectomy is a process of removal of ovaries which is only done in case of ovarian cyst or any cancer. Hysterectomy is a process in which uterus removal is carried out because of uterine cancer or potential of uterine cancer. Castration is carried for males, usually done for animals.

Question:13

Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by females. Choose the correct option from the statements given below:
i. They are introduced into the uterus
ii. They are placed to cover the cervical region
iii. They act as physical barriers for sperm entry
iv. They act as spermicidal agents
(a) I and ii, (b) I and iii, (c) ii and iii, (d) iii & iv

Answer:

The answer is the option (c) (ii), and (iii)
Explanation: Rubber is the primary material used to make Diaphragms, and rubber has no spermicidal properties. Diaphragms are not placed into the uterus; they are placed over the cervix.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question:1

Reproductive health refers only to healthy reproductive functions. Comment.

Answer:

Reproductive health pertains to the proper functioning of all the key aspects of reproduction, i.e. physical, emotional, social, and behavioural, i.e. all the reproductive organs.

Question:2

Comment on the Reproductive and Child Health Care programme of the government to improve the reproductive health of the people.

Answer:

The government’s Reproductive and Child Health Care programme is aimed at raising awareness regarding the reproduction-related topics amongst the common people. The end result desired from this programme is a reduction in mortality rates of mothers and infants.

Question:3

The present population growth rate in India is alarming. Suggest ways to check it.

Answer:

Following are some of the ways to keep the present population growth rate in check: -
  1. Raising awareness regarding the ill-effects of uncontrolled growth in population.
  2. Creating awareness regarding the benefits of various birth control methods.
  3. Offering incentives to people having smaller families.

Question:4

STDs can be considered as self-invited diseases. Comment

Answer:

STDs or Sexually Transmitted Diseases are those diseases which are transferred to another individual through sexual intercourse. They are sometimes regarded as Reproductive Tract Infections.

Question:5

Suggest the reproduction-related aspects in which counselling should be provided at the school level.

Answer:

Following are the various reproduction-related aspects in which counselling should be provided at the school level: -
- Creating awareness regarding the changes in sexual organs during adolescence.
- Creating awareness regarding various sexual aspects to help them identify facts from myths.
- Creating awareness regarding the ill-effects of uncontrolled population growth.
- Sensitising youngsters against ill effects of sexual abuse and sex crimes.

Question:6

Mention the primary aim of the “Assisted Reproductive Technology” (ART) programme.

Answer:

“Assisted Reproductive Technology” (ART) programme is designed to have infertile couples to have their own kids with the help of the specified techniques.

Question:7

What is the significance of progesterone-estrogen combination as a contraceptive measure?

Answer:

As a contraceptive measure, progesterone-estrogen combination changes the quality of cervical mucus, thereby preventing sperm entry. It also stops implantation and ovulation.

Question:8

Strict conditions are to be followed in the medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) procedures. Mention two reasons.

Answer:

The need for strict conditions to be followed in the medical termination of pregnancy are present because of the following reasons: -
  1. To create deterrence against this sexist practice.
  2. To stop unqualified people from terminating a pregnancy, which has become a health hazard.

Question:9

Males in whom testes fail to descend to the scrotum are generally infertile. Why?

Answer:

If the testes are unable to descend to the scrotum, they will not be able to produce sperms as they are extremely sensitive to temperature. As a result, the gametogenesis is inhibited, causing infertility.

Question:10

Mention two advantages of lactational amenorrhea as a contraceptive method.

Answer:

Two advantages of lactational amenorrhea as a contraceptive method are as follows: -
  • There is no need to insert any device of any type.
  • It contributes to increasing the levels of prolactin which is a hormone that plays a role in inhibiting pregnancy.

Introduction of Class 12 Biology NCERT Exemplar Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

The topics covered in this chapter will help the students in learning optimum maternal, paternal and child health care pre-pregnancy, during pregnancy and post-pregnancy, are some of the topics associated with reproductive health and also population control.

As per NCERT exemplar Class 12 Biology solutions chapter 4, Reproductive Health refers to the condition of male and female reproductive systems during all life stages. Reproductive health includes complete physical, mental and social well-being. It is not merely the absence of disease or infirmity, in all matters relating to the reproductive system.

Major Subtopics in NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4

● 4.1 – Reproductive Health – Problems and Strategies

● 4.2 – Population Explosion and Birth Control

● 4.3 – Medical Termination of Pregnancy

● 4.4 – Sexually Transmitted Diseases

● 4.5 – Infertility

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 4 - Learning Outcome

  • In Class 12 Biology NCERT exemplar solutions chapter 4, the students will get to learn and study the different topics that the students need to know while studying the chapter.
  • The chapter will help you learn about reproductive health - problems and strategies, population explosion and birth control. Every topic covered in NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology chapter 4 solutions is explained in a detailed matter.
  • Overall NCERT exemplar solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 4, along with giving information is also fun and interesting at the same time for all the students who wish to learn about the different reproductive health and the strategies.
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NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter Wise Links:

Benefits of NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

  • There are different topics in this chapter that helps the students in understanding the different parts and how it functions. NCERT exemplar solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 4 is detailed and provides you all the important information.
  • NCERT exemplar Class 12 Biology solutions chapter 4 provides you with all the necessary information to study about and helps to prepare better for the exams.
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Frequently Asked Question (FAQs)

1. Who can benefit from the NCERT exemplar Class 12 Biology solutions chapter 4?

The students who are preparing for board exams and also entrance examinations can benefit from this. 

2. What are the different topics covered in the Class 12 Biology NCERT exemplar solutions chapter 4?

The topics covered in the book are reproductive health, medical termination of pregnancy and different topics.

3. How to download these NCERT exemplar Class 12 Biology solutions chapter 4?

Students can download pdf using an online webpage to pdf tool.

4. What type of questions are there in solutions?

In NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology chapter 4 solutions, the type of questions present are true false questions with reasons, short and long answers, correcting the given statements and also very long answers.

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Yes, you can give improvement exams for 2-3 subjects in CBSE (Central Board of Secondary Education). CBSE allows students who have appeared for their Class 12 board exams to improve their scores by re-appearing for exams in up to five subjects the following year.


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  • Passing NIOS in October 2024 will make you eligible for NIT admissions in 2025 . NIT admissions are based on your performance in entrance exams like JEE Main, which typically happen in January and April. These exams consider the previous year's Class 12th board results (or equivalent exams like NIOS).

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  • JEE Main 2024 Admissions: The application process for NITs through JEE Main 2024 is likely complete by now (May 2024). They consider your 2023 Class 12th marks (CBSE in this case).
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  • High CAT Score: A score exceeding  99.9 percentile is exceptional and puts you amongst the top candidates vying for admission. IIM Bangalore prioritizes  CAT scores heavily in the shortlisting process.

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A block of mass 0.50 kg is moving with a speed of 2.00 ms-1 on a smooth surface. It strikes another mass of 1.00 kg and then they move together as a single body. The energy loss during the collision is

Option 1)

0.34\; J

Option 2)

0.16\; J

Option 3)

1.00\; J

Option 4)

0.67\; J

A person trying to lose weight by burning fat lifts a mass of 10 kg upto a height of 1 m 1000 times.  Assume that the potential energy lost each time he lowers the mass is dissipated.  How much fat will he use up considering the work done only when the weight is lifted up ?  Fat supplies 3.8×107 J of energy per kg which is converted to mechanical energy with a 20% efficiency rate.  Take g = 9.8 ms−2 :

Option 1)

2.45×10−3 kg

Option 2)

 6.45×10−3 kg

Option 3)

 9.89×10−3 kg

Option 4)

12.89×10−3 kg

 

An athlete in the olympic games covers a distance of 100 m in 10 s. His kinetic energy can be estimated to be in the range

Option 1)

2,000 \; J - 5,000\; J

Option 2)

200 \, \, J - 500 \, \, J

Option 3)

2\times 10^{5}J-3\times 10^{5}J

Option 4)

20,000 \, \, J - 50,000 \, \, J

A particle is projected at 600   to the horizontal with a kinetic energy K. The kinetic energy at the highest point

Option 1)

K/2\,

Option 2)

\; K\;

Option 3)

zero\;

Option 4)

K/4

In the reaction,

2Al_{(s)}+6HCL_{(aq)}\rightarrow 2Al^{3+}\, _{(aq)}+6Cl^{-}\, _{(aq)}+3H_{2(g)}

Option 1)

11.2\, L\, H_{2(g)}  at STP  is produced for every mole HCL_{(aq)}  consumed

Option 2)

6L\, HCl_{(aq)}  is consumed for ever 3L\, H_{2(g)}      produced

Option 3)

33.6 L\, H_{2(g)} is produced regardless of temperature and pressure for every mole Al that reacts

Option 4)

67.2\, L\, H_{2(g)} at STP is produced for every mole Al that reacts .

How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg_{3}(PO_{4})_{2} will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms?

Option 1)

0.02

Option 2)

3.125 × 10-2

Option 3)

1.25 × 10-2

Option 4)

2.5 × 10-2

If we consider that 1/6, in place of 1/12, mass of carbon atom is taken to be the relative atomic mass unit, the mass of one mole of a substance will

Option 1)

decrease twice

Option 2)

increase two fold

Option 3)

remain unchanged

Option 4)

be a function of the molecular mass of the substance.

With increase of temperature, which of these changes?

Option 1)

Molality

Option 2)

Weight fraction of solute

Option 3)

Fraction of solute present in water

Option 4)

Mole fraction.

Number of atoms in 558.5 gram Fe (at. wt.of Fe = 55.85 g mol-1) is

Option 1)

twice that in 60 g carbon

Option 2)

6.023 × 1022

Option 3)

half that in 8 g He

Option 4)

558.5 × 6.023 × 1023

A pulley of radius 2 m is rotated about its axis by a force F = (20t - 5t2) newton (where t is measured in seconds) applied tangentially. If the moment of inertia of the pulley about its axis of rotation is 10 kg m2 , the number of rotations made by the pulley before its direction of motion if reversed, is

Option 1)

less than 3

Option 2)

more than 3 but less than 6

Option 3)

more than 6 but less than 9

Option 4)

more than 9

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