NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Irshad AnwarUpdated on 26 Jun 2025, 10:25 AM IST

In today’s world, students come across many health-related topics early on, but when it comes to understanding reproductive well-being, there’s still a lot of confusion and hesitation. This is the reason why the NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health is so important. It focuses on overall health related to reproduction, covering physical, emotional, and social aspects. From population explosion to birth control methods, STDs, infertility, and more, this chapter builds awareness and clears common doubts. To help students learn these concepts better, the NCERT Exemplar Solutions provide clear and detailed explanations.

This Story also Contains

  1. Detailed Answers to the NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Science Chapter 4 (Long Questions)
  2. Access Answers to the NCERT Exemplar Science Class 12 Chapter 4(Short Answer Questions)
  3. Get Answers to the NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Science Chapter 4 (Multiple Choice Questions)
  4. Know Answers to the NCERT Exemplar for Reproductive Health(Short Answer Questions)
  5. Approach to solve Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Questions
  6. Important Topics and Subtopics of Class 12 Chapter 4
  7. Important Question of Class 12 Chapter 4
  8. NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter Wise Links
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

The NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology contain different types of questions, such as multiple-choice questions (MCQs), short answers, long answers, and diagrams to explain important concepts. Many of these questions are also based on real-life situations and practical understanding, which helps in better learning. They provide step-by-step solutions and detailed answers to help students understand the difficult concepts easily and perform well in board exams as well as other competitive exams like NEET. NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 is a beneficial study material for easily understanding the chapters of Biology.

Detailed Answers to the NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Science Chapter 4 (Long Questions)

Here, students will find helpful practice questions and answers designed to improve understanding and boost exam preparation.

Question:1

What are the Assisted Reproductive Techniques practised to help infertile couples? Describe any three techniques

Answer:

Three different Assisted Reproductive Techniques:
a. IVF (In-vitro Fertilisation): Sperm and ovum are taken out of the male and female body respectively and then allowed to go for fertilisation in a laboratory.
b. ET (Embryo Transfer): This step is performed after IVF. There are mainly two methods of Embryo Transfer. For zygotes up to 8 blastomeres are transferred into the fallopian tube, this technique is known as ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer). The second technique is known as Intra-Uterine Transfer (IUT), where blastocyst is transferred into the uterus.
c. GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer): In this technique, the ovum is collected from a donor and transferred into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce.

Question:2

Discuss the mode of action and advantages/disadvantages of hormonal contraceptives.

Answer:

Mode of Action of Hormonal Contraceptives: These contraceptives are used to prevent ovulation and implantation. These contraceptives alter the properties of cervical mucus and prevent the entry of sperm into the uterus.
Advantages: They are available as pills and do not affect the sexual life of the couple. And they have fewer side effects.
Disadvantages: These contraceptives don’t show any immediate effect, but can have long-term effects such as increased cholesterol level and cause obesity. They can also change the menstrual cycle in some cases. Some other side effects are abdominal pain, nausea, irregular menstrual bleeding and in some extreme cases, breast cancer also.

Question:3

STDs are a threat to reproductive health. Describe any two such diseases and suggest preventive measures.

Answer:

Trichomoniasis: A protozoan named Trichomonas Vaginalis is the root cause of this disease. Common symptoms of this disease are whitish discharge from the vagina, foul smell, and constant itching. Male is known to be the carriers of this parasite, and females suffer from this disease. Therefore, both partners should be treated with sufficient medication.
Prevention of Trichomoniasis: The disease can be prevented by maintaining good hygiene of sexual organs, especially during menstruation in women. It can also be prevented by using the barrier method during coitus.
AIDS: Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome affects one’s immune system and is transferred due to sexual activity or intercourse. This disease can lead to certain death.
Prevention of AIDS:
  • Avoid sexual contact with multiple persons/partners
  • Using disposable syringes and needles
  • During a blood transfusion, take proper precautions
  • Use of barrier contraceptives during coitus

Question:4

Do you justify the statutory ban on amniocentesis in our country? Give reasons.

Answer:

Amniocentesis is a method through which any abnormalities in the fetus can be detected. But in our country, it has been used as malpractice to find the gender of the unborn child. In India, a girl child is not the most sought-after. People take advantage of MTP to discover the gender of the unborn child. Male children are given preference; this has led to killing the girl child in the womb. The sex ratio of some states in the country is very much skewed, such as in Haryana and Punjab. Boys there grow with a mindset of very little respect for women. This is the root cause of rape, dowry deaths, and gender inequality. This trend has to stop, and the only solution is a ban on Amniocentesis. Only this can do justice to the female population in the country and give them equal treatment to the male population.

Question:5

Enumerate and describe any five reasons for introducing sex education to school-going children.

Answer:

Listed below are the five reasons for introducing sex education in schools:
1. School students are curious, and the things they learn at this age stay with them for a long time. If they get wrong information, it can badly affect their thinking, especially related to reproductive health.
2. Reproductive health is not just about the body. It also affects behaviour, emotions, and social life. Students need to understand this clearly.
3. Students who get proper sex education at the right age grow up with a better understanding of relationships, marriage, and family planning. They also learn to respect others' privacy.
4. When students know how the reproductive system works, they are more aware and careful. It helps them avoid STDs, and they won't hesitate to visit a doctor if needed.
5. Students learn that having small families is good for both social and economic reasons. It helps them plan their future better.

Access Answers to the NCERT Exemplar Science Class 12 Chapter 4(Short Answer Questions)

The detailed answers to the Short answer questions are given below:

Question:1

Suggest some important steps that you would recommend being taken to improve the reproductive health standards in India.

Answer:

The following are the steps that are recommended to improve reproductive health standards amongst Indians:
  • Girls and Boys should be given education related to reproductive aspects right from the school level.
  • Child marriage should be prevented.
  • Avoiding female foeticide.
  • MTP monitoring and strict regulations regarding the same.
  • Free contraceptives for poor people.
  • Proper healthcare should be provided in small villages
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Question:2

The procedure of GIFT involves the transfer of a female gamete to the fallopian tube. Can gametes be transferred to the uterus to achieve the same result? Explain.

Answer:

To understand the process of transfer of the gametes of the uterus, we need to recall the process from insemination to implantation. The process happens in the following stages:
  • Ovum enters the fallopian tube after ovulation.
  • To fertilise the egg, the sperm needs to enter the ampulla as fertilisation cannot happen inside the uterus.
  • Once the fertilisation is done, mitosis of the zygote happens several times and a blastocyst is produced.
  • Everything happens inside the ampulla and isthmus of the fallopian tube.
  • After this, the blastocyst reaches the uterus and implantation takes place.
The stages indicate that GIFT includes the transfer of the female gemmate to the fallopian tube and not to the uterus.

Question:3

Copper ion-releasing IUDs are more efficient than non-medicated methods. Why?

Answer:

Phagocytosis of sperm is initiated because of IUDs, hence preventing conception. Lippes loop (non-medicated IUDs) works on this concept. Whereas copper-releasing IUDs provide added benefits over the effects of normal IUDs, copper is known for suppressing sperm motility. And therefore, sperm are unable to reach the fallopian tube. Some sperm can reach the fallopian tube in the case of normal IUDs. This will result in failure rates of IUDs. Thus, copper-releasing IUDs are superior to normal IUDs, and they are more efficient.

Question:4

What are the probable factors that contributed to the population explosion in India?

Answer:

Many factors have overpopulated India. Some of the reasons for the population in India are mentioned below:
  • Underage marriages in many parts of the country.
  • Child-less couples have to face many social dissimilarities. Having a child is considered to be a necessary obligation from social and religious prospects.
  • An uneducated population and a lack of awareness a major factors in the issue.
  • Good food production and improving healthcare facilities from the 1950s have led to a reduction in IMR and MMR.
  • In small families, having more children is considered as assets; they could work and increase the income of the family.

Question:5

Briefly explain IVF and ET. What are the conditions in which these methods are advised?

Answer:

In-vitro fertilisation is also known as IVF, where sperm and ovum are taken out of the body of a male and female (donor) and fertilised in laboratories, likely in a petri dish. ET or embryo transfer is the next step performed after IVF. An embryo of up to 8 blastomeric stages is transferred to the fallopian tube. The embryo of more than 8 blastomeric stages is transferred to the uterus. The babies born out of this method are often called test-tube babies, as fertilisation and some development of the zygote takes place in the laboratory. This method is only used when medical treatment and psychotherapy fail, and couples fail in conception. These methods are also known as Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART). The extremely high degree of precision is required in this method with highly specialised doctors. Also, these techniques are very costly to install; hence, they are only available at very few centres across the country.

Question:6

What are the advantages of natural methods of contraception over artificial methods?

Answer:

Advantages of natural methods of conception over artificial methods are as follows: -
  • Cost-effectiveness
  • There are no side effects
  • The normal sexual life of a couple is not disturbed

Question:7

What are the conditions in which the medical termination of pregnancy is advised?

Answer:

Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is advisable under the following cases: -
  • The pregnant lady or foetus has a risk to life
  • Teratogenic defects in the foetus
  • Unwanted pregnancy because of unsafe coitus

Question:8

Comment on the essential features required for an ideal contraceptive

Answer:

Features of an ideal contraceptive are as follows:
  • Cost-effective
  • Easy to use and handle
  • There should be no side effects
  • It should not interfere with the normal sex life of the couple

Question:9

All reproductive tract infections (RTIs) are STDs, but not all STDs are RTIs. Justify with an example.

Answer:

All the Reproductive Tract Infections (RTIs) can be transmitted through coitus; therefore, all RTIs are STDs. But a few of the STDs do not affect the reproductive system, such as Hepatitis B, AIDS.

Get Answers to the NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Science Chapter 4 (Multiple Choice Questions)

The detailed answers to the MCQs are given below:

Question:1

The method of directly injecting sperm into an ovum in Assisted Reproductive Technology is called:
a. GIFT
b. ZIFT
c. ICSI
d. ET

Answer:

ICSI stands for Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection, a highly advanced ART method where a single sperm is directly injected into the cytoplasm of an ovum. This is especially used in cases of male infertility or when fertilisation repeatedly fails in IVF. GIFT and ZIFT are older methods involving gametes or zygotes, and ET just refers to embryo transfer.

Hence, the correct answer is option (c) ICSI.

Question:2

Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will:
a. Cause a rapid increase in growth rate
b. Result in a decline in growth rate
c. Not cause a significant change in growth rate
d. Result in an explosive population

Answer:

IMR refers to Infant Mortality Rate, and MMR is Maternal Mortality Rate. If IMR increases, it offsets population growth; if MMR decreases, it allows more successful births. So when one increases and the other decreases, they kind of cancel each other out, leading to no major net change in population growth rate.

Hence, the correct answer is option (c) Not cause a significant change in growth rate.

Question:3

Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the:
a. Suppression of gonadotropins
b. Hypersecretion of gonadotropins
c. Suppression of gametic transport
d. Suppression of fertilisation

Answer:

During intense lactation, high levels of prolactin inhibit the release of gonadotropins like LH and FSH. These hormones are needed to trigger ovulation. So if they’re suppressed, ovulation doesn’t happen, and without ovulation, conception can’t occur. This is why many new mothers experience a natural delay in regaining fertility.

Hence, the correct answer is option (a) Suppression of gonadotropins.


Question:4

Sterilisation techniques are generally fool-proof methods of contraception with the least side effects. Yet, this is the last option for couples because:
i. It is almost irreversible
ii. Of the misconception that it will reduce sexual urge
iii. It is a surgical procedure
iv. Of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of the country
Choose the correct option:
a. i and iii
b. ii and iii
c. ii and iv
d. I, ii, iii and iv

Answer:

Sterilisation is highly effective and has minimal side effects, but couples hesitate because it’s a surgical procedure. It’s also considered irreversible in most cases. Also, there is a lack of facilities and social myths like "it kills libido", and it becomes the very last option people consider.

Hence, the correct answer is option (d) i, ii, iii and iv.



Question:5

A national-level approach to building up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our country in:
a. the 1950s
b. The 1960s
c. The 1980s
d. The 1990s

Answer:

India was one of the first countries to launch a national family planning programme back in the 1950s. This marked the beginning of structured efforts to promote reproductive health, contraceptive use, and awareness. It was a bold and early step towards building a population-aware society.

Hence, the correct answer is option (a) The 1950s.


Question:6

Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within:
a. 72 hrs of coitus
b. 72 hrs of ovulation
c. 72 hrs of menstruation
d. 72 hrs of implantation

Answer:

Emergency contraceptives are most effective when taken within 72 hours (3 days) after unprotected intercourse. They work by preventing ovulation or fertilisation. If implantation has already occurred, the pill won’t work, which is why timing is everything here.

Hence, the correct answer is option (a) 72 hours of coitus.





Question:7

Choose the right one among the statements given below:
a. IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself.
b. IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
c. IUDs suppress gametogenesis
d. IUDs, once inserted, need not be replaced

Answer:

IUDs (like Copper-T) work by increasing phagocytosis, basically alerting the immune cells to destroy any sperm that enter the uterus. They don’t interfere with hormone production, ovulation, or gamete formation. Also, they must be inserted by medical professionals.

Hence, the correct answer is option (b) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus.

Question:8

The following statements are given regarding MTP. Choose the correct options given below: -
i. MTPs are generally advised during the first trimester
ii. MTPs are used as a contraceptive method
iii. MTPs are always surgical
iv. MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical personnel
(a) ii and iii (b) ii and iii (c) i and iv (d) i and ii

Answer:

MTP is allowed only in certain conditions, mostly during the first trimester for safety reasons. It must be done under medical supervision—always. It’s not a form of contraception, and not always surgical (there are medical pill-based options too). So, only (i) and (iv) hold true.

Hence, the correct answer is option (c) i and iv.

AIDS is caused by the HIV virus and spreads through sexual contact, but it doesn’t attack reproductive organs directly. It damages the immune system. In contrast, syphilis, gonorrhoea, and genital warts target sex organs and cause local symptoms.

Hence, the correct answer is option (b) AIDS.

Question:10

Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons:
a. These are effective barriers for insemination
b. They do not interfere with coital act
c. These help in reducing the risk of STDs
d. All of the above

Answer:

Condoms are affordable, non-invasive, and easy to use. They prevent fertilisation, don’t mess with hormones or natural functions, and act as a shield against STDs. That’s a triple win. No wonder they’re among the most widely accepted forms of contraception.

Hence, the correct answer is option (d) All of the above.

Question:11

Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT procedure:
a. Ova collected from a female donor are transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote formation.
b. A zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the fallopian tube
c. A zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus
d. Ova collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus

Answer:

In ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer), a zygote formed in a lab is transferred into the fallopian tube, not the uterus. The aim is to allow the embryo to develop naturally and reach the uterus as a blastocyst for implantation. This makes ZIFT more “natural” than embryo transfer.

Hence, the correct answer is option (b) A zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the fallopian tube.

Question:12

The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is:
a. Ovariectomy
b. Hysterectomy
c. Vasectomy
d. Castration

Answer:

Vasectomy is a surgical male contraceptive method where the vas deferens is cut and tied to prevent sperm release. It’s quick, effective, and doesn’t interfere with libido or hormonal levels. Other listed options involve removal of organs and are not contraceptive procedures.

Hence, the correct answer is option (c) Vasectomy.

Question:13

Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by females. Choose the correct option from the statements given below:
i. They are introduced into the uterus
ii. They are placed to cover the cervical region
iii. They act as physical barriers for sperm entry
iv. They act as spermicidal agents
(a) I and ii, (b) I and iii, (c) ii and iii, (d) iii & iv

Answer:

Diaphragms are soft rubber barriers placed over the cervix to block sperm from entering the uterus. They do not enter the uterus and have no chemical action—they simply prevent fertilisation by physically blocking sperm movement. So only statements (ii) and (iii) are correct.

Hence, the correct answer is option (c) ii and iii.

Know Answers to the NCERT Exemplar for Reproductive Health(Short Answer Questions)

The detailed answers to the Short answer questions are given below:

Question:1

Reproductive health refers only to healthy reproductive functions. Comment.

Answer:

Reproductive health pertains to the proper functioning of all the key aspects of reproduction, i.e. physical, emotional, social, and behavioural, i.e. all the reproductive organs.

Question:2

Comment on the Reproductive and Child Health Care programme of the government to improve the reproductive health of the people.

Answer:

The government’s Reproductive and Child Health Care programme is aimed at raising awareness regarding the reproduction-related topics amongst the common people. The end result desired from this programme is a reduction in mortality rates of mothers and infants.

Question:3

The present population growth rate in India is alarming. Suggest ways to check it.

Answer:

Following are some of the ways to keep the present population growth rate in check: -
  1. Raising awareness regarding the ill effects of uncontrolled growth in population.
  2. Creating awareness regarding the benefits of various birth control methods.
  3. Offering incentives to people having smaller families.

Question:4

STDs can be considered as self-inflicted diseases. Comment

Answer:

STDs or Sexually Transmitted Diseases are those diseases which are transferred to another individual through sexual intercourse. They are sometimes regarded as Reproductive Tract Infections.

Question:5

Suggest the reproduction-related aspects in which counselling should be provided at the school level.

Answer:

The following are the various reproduction-related aspects in which counselling should be provided at the school level: -
- Creating awareness regarding the changes in sexual organs during adolescence.
- Creating awareness regarding various sexual aspects to help them identify facts from myths.
- Creating awareness regarding the ill-effects of uncontrolled population growth.
- Sensitising youngsters against the ill effects of sexual abuse and sex crimes.

Question:6

Mention the primary aim of the “Assisted Reproductive Technology” (ART) programme.

Answer:

“Assisted Reproductive Technology” (ART) programme is designed to help infertile couples have their kids with the help of the specified techniques.

Question:7

What is the significance of the progesterone-estrogen combination as a contraceptive measure?

Answer:

As a contraceptive measure, progesterone-estrogen combination changes the quality of cervical mucus, thereby preventing sperm entry. It also stops implantation and ovulation.

Question:8

Strict conditions are to be followed in the medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) procedures. Mention two reasons.

Answer:

The need for strict conditions to be followed in the medical termination of pregnancy are present because of the following reasons: -
  1. To create deterrence against this sexist practice.
  2. To stop unqualified people from terminating a pregnancy, which has become a health hazard.

Question:9

Males in whom the testes fail to descend to the scrotum are generally infertile. Why?

Answer:

If the testes are unable to descend to the scrotum, they will not be able to produce sperm as they are extremely sensitive to temperature. As a result, gametogenesis is inhibited, causing infertility.

Question:10

Mention two advantages of lactational amenorrhea as a contraceptive method.

Answer:

Two advantages of lactational amenorrhea as a contraceptive method are as follows: -
  • There is no need to insert any device of any type.
  • It contributes to increasing the levels of prolactin, which is a hormone that plays a role in inhibiting pregnancy.

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Solutions Subject Wise

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Approach to solve Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Questions

Follow the steps below to solve questions effectively and strengthen your understanding of this chapter's concepts.

  • First, students have to read the chapter carefully to understand all the important definitions, concepts, and processes related to this chapter.

  • Focus should be given on topics like contraception, infertility, and sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), along with their treatment.

  • Students should make short notes of important topics, like types of contraceptives, their advantages, and side effects, that help in saving their time while doing revision.

  • Solve and practice NCERT exercise questions, exemplar problems, and previous year questions for better understanding.

  • Regular revision is required to get a clear vision of all the concepts and topics.

Also, read the NCERT Solution subject-wise

Important Topics and Subtopics of Class 12 Chapter 4

Some important Topics to study from Reproductive Health:

Also, check the NCERT Books and the NCERT Syllabus here

Important Question of Class 12 Chapter 4

Provided below are some important questions from this chapter that will help you understand the topic better and do well in your exam.

Question: Match List I with List II :


List I
List II
ANon-medicated IUDIMultiload 375
BCopper releasing IUDIIProgestogens
CHormone releasing IUDIIILippes loop
DImplantsIVLNG-20

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

1. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

2. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

3. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

4. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Answer: The correct answer is option 4)A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II.

Explanation:

  • Lippes loop: A copper and plastic IUD that is not medication-assisted. Although it does not release hormones, copper's spermicidal action is the main way it prevents conception.
  • The Multiload 375 is an IUD that delivers copper ions to stop conception.
  • LNG-20: A hormone-releasing IUD that prevents pregnancy by releasing the progestogen levonorgestrel (LNG).
  • Progestogens are hormones that thicken cervical mucus and impede ovulation, which is how implants (under-skin rods) prevent conception.

Must Read NCERT Notes subject-wise

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Q: What is reproductive health according to NCERT Class 12 Biology Chapter 4?
A:

Reproductive health refers to total well-being in all aspects of reproduction, including physical, emotional, behavioral, and social aspects

Q: What are the major aspects covered in NCERT Exemplar solutions for Chapter 4 Biology?
A:

Aspects include reproductive health problems, population explosion, birth control, sexually transmitted diseases, and infertility

Q: What are the methods of birth control discussed in NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology?
A:

Methods include natural (e.g., periodic abstinence), barrier (e.g., condoms), IUDs, and hormonal pills

Q: How does amniocentesis help in detecting genetic disorders?
A:

Amniocentesis involves sampling amniotic fluid to detect genetic disorders in the fetus, but it is not specifically covered in Chapter 4.

Q: What are the common sexually transmitted diseases mentioned in NCERT Class 12 Biology?
A:

Diseases include gonorrhea, syphilis, genital herpes, chlamydiasis, and HIV/AIDS

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Yes, if you’re not satisfied with your marks even after the improvement exam, many education boards allow you to reappear as a private candidate next year to improve your scores. This means you can register independently, study at your own pace, and take the exams without attending regular classes. It’s a good option to improve your results and open up more opportunities for higher studies or careers. Just make sure to check the specific rules and deadlines of your education board so you don’t miss the registration window. Keep your focus, and you will do better next time.

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Yes, in the case that you appeared for the 2025 improvement exam and your roll number is different from what was on the previous year’s marksheet, the board will usually release a new migration certificate. This is because the migration certificate will reflect the most recent exam details, roll number and passing year. You can apply to get it from your board using the process prescribed by them either online or through your school/college.

Yes, if you miss the 1st CBSE exam due to valid reasons, then you can appear for the 2nd CBSE compartment exam.

From the academic year 2026, the board will conduct the CBSE 10th exam twice a year, while the CBSE 12th exam will be held once, as per usual. For class 10th, the second phase exam will act as the supplementary exam. Check out information on w hen the CBSE first exam 2026 will be conducted and changes in 2026 CBSE Board exam by clicking on the link .

If you want to change your stream to humanities after getting a compartment in one subject in the CBSE 12th Board Exam , you actually have limited options to qualify for your board exams. You can prepare effectively and appear in the compartment examination for mathematics again. If you do not wish to continue with the current stream, you can take readmission in the Humanities stream and start from Class 11th again, and continue studying for two more years to qualify for the 12th examination.

The GUJCET Merit List is prepared based on the Class 12th marks and GUJCET marks received by the students. CBSE students who are not from the Gujarat board can definitely compete with GSEB students, as their eligibility is decided based on the combined marks scored by them in GUJCET and the 12th board. The weightage of the GUJCET score is 40% and the weightage of the class 12 scores is 60%.