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Do you know what phosphorus means? Phosphorus glows on slow oxidation in the presence of air. It is present in the p-block of the modern periodic table. The elements present in the p-block have their last electron filled in the p-orbital. Because of the presence of different types of elements, like metals, non-metals and metalloids, the p-block is so versatile.
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This chapter has a discussion on the periodic trends, chemical and physical properties of the p-block elements, electronic configuration, and the chemistry of the important compounds of the p-block. It discusses the different allotropes of elements, the inert pair effect, electronegativity, and ionisation energy.
The NCERT Exemplar Solutions of p-block elements are designed by our subject matter experts, which ensures that the students understand key concepts by providing detailed explanations and easy-to-follow solutions. The NCERT Exemplar Solutions of Class 12 Chemistry strengthen their problem-solving skills and help them memorise and understand chemical reactions, reaction mechanisms, and chemical properties. The solutions will help the student prepare effectively for competitive exams like NEET, JEE Mains, CBSE Board exams. To enhance conceptual understanding and thinking, this article includes selected HOTS questions that strengthen students problem-solving abilities.
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All the MCQ (type 1) questions with solutions are given below:
Question 1. On addition of conc.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Answer:
The answer is the option (iii). When concentrated
In case of iodine the halogen acid
Question 2. In qualitative analysis when
(i) a deep blue precipitate of
(ii) a deep blue solution of
(iii) a deep blue solution of
(iv) a deep blue solution of
Answer:
The answer is the option (ii). Black precipitate of copper sulphide is formed on passing
Question 3. In a cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid molecule, how many single and double bonds are present?
(i) 3 double bonds; 9 single bonds
(ii) 6 double bonds; 6 single bonds
(iii) 3 double bonds; 12 single bonds
(iv) Zero double bonds; 12 single bonds
Answer:
The answer is the option (i) 3 double bonds; 9 single bonds
In Cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid, there are 3 double bonds and 9 single bonds as present
Question 4. Which of the following elements can be involved in
(i) Carbon
(ii) Nitrogen
(iii) Phosphorus
(iv) Boron
Answer:
The answer is the option (iii) Phosphorus
The involvement of phosphorous in pπ-dπ bonding is due to presence of vacant d orbitals. The elements C, N, and B do not have vacant d orbitals.
Question 5. Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural?
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Answer:
The answer is the option (i).
Isoelectronic means that two ions or molecules have the same number of electrons. Isostructural means they have the same shape or geometry. The number of electrons in both the isoelectronic species is 32 and they exhibit
Question 6. Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from fluorine to iodine. Which of the halogen acids should have the highest bond dissociation enthalpy?
Answer:
The answer is the option (i).
On moving down the group, there is an increase in the atomic radii and a decrease in bond dissociation enthalpy. That is why;
Compound |
|
|
|
255 |
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Answer:
The answer is the option (iv). The bond dissociation enthalpy decreases down the group.
Question 8. On heating with concentrated
(i) It is highly poisonous and has smelled like rotten fish.
(ii) It’s a solution in water decomposes in the presence of light.
(iii) It is more basic than
(iv) It is less basic than
Answer:
The answer is the option (c)
Question 9. Which of the following acids forms three series of salts?
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Answer:
The answer is the option (iii)
There are 3 ionisable H-atoms in
Thus, it forms three series of salts are as follows: .
Question 10. Strong reducing behaviour of
(i) The low oxidation state of phosphorus
(ii) Presence of two
(iii) Presence of one
(iv) High electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus
Answer:
The answer is the option (iii). In the monobasic acid
Question 11. On heating lead, nitrate forms oxides of nitrogen and lead. The oxides formed are ______.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Answer:
The answer is the option (ii)
Question 12. Which of the following elements does not show allotropy?
(i) Nitrogen
(ii) Bismuth
(iii) Antimony
(iv) Arsenic
Answer:
The answer is the option (i). Nitrogen has weak N – N single bond because of high inter-electronic repulsion of non-bonding electrons. This is why, nitrogen does not exhibit allotropy.
Question 13. Maximum covalency of nitrogen is ______________.
(i) 3
(ii) 5
(iii) 4
(iv) 6
Answer:
The answer is the option (iii). Maximum covalency of nitrogen is four as it cannot extend its valency beyond four
Question 14. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(i) Single
(ii)
(iii)
(iv) Covalency of nitrogen in
Answer:
The answer is the option (i).Single
Question 15. A brown ring is formed in the ring test for
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Answer:
The answer is the option (i). On addition of freshly prepared solution of
Hence, 2 moles of
Question 16. Elements of group-15 form compounds in +5 oxidation state. However, bismuth forms only one well characterised compound in +5 oxidation state. The compound is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Answer:
The answer is the option (ii). Due to inert pair effect, bismuth generally exhibits +3 oxidation state. However, due to the small size and high electronegativity of the fluoride ion it forms the compound
Question 17. On heating ammonium dichromate and barium azide separately we get
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Answer:
The answer is the option (i)
Question 18. In the preparation of
(i) 2
(ii) 3
(iii) 4
(iv) 6
Answer:
The answer is the option (i). In the process of preparation of nitric acid, catalytic oxidation of 2 moles of ammonia produces 2 moles of
Hence, 2 moles of ammonia will produce 2 moles of
Question 19. The oxidation state of a central atom in the anion of compound
(i) +3
(ii) +5
(iii) +1
(iv) –3
Answer:
The answer is the option (c)
Question 20. Which of the following is not tetrahedral in shape ?
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Answer:
The answer is the option (iii).
Question 21. Which of the following are peroxoacids of sulphur?
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Answer:
The answer is the option (i).Peroxoacids of sulphur should contain one
Question 22. Hot conc.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Answer:
The answer is the option (c)
Question 23. A black compound of manganese reacts with a halogen acid to give greenish yellow gas. When an excess of this gas reacts with
(i) – 3 to +3
(ii) – 3 to 0
(iii) – 3 to +5
(iv) 0 to – 3
Answer:
The answer is the option (i).
on reaction of excess of
O.S. (-3) O.S.(+3)
Question 24. In the preparation of compounds of
(i) both
(ii) both
(iii) both
(iv) both
Answer:
The answer is the option (iii). The ionization enthalpy of
Question 25. In solid state
(i) covalent solid
(ii) octahedral structure
(iii) ionic solid with
(iv) ionic solid with
Answer:
The answer is the option (iv). Structure of
Question 26.
Ion |
|
|
|
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Answer:
The answer is the option (iii).A higher reduction potential means that there is greater tendency to get reduced. Therefore, the order of oxidizing power is as follows
Question 27. Which of the following is isoelectronic pair?
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Answer:
The answer is the option (ii). Isoelectronic pair have same number of electrons
Hence, option b is correct.
All the MCQ (type 2) questions with solutions are given below:
Question 28. If chlorine gas is passed through a hot
(i) 0 to +5
(ii) 0 to +3
(iii) 0 to –1
(iv) 0 to +1
Answer:
The answer is the option (i) and (iii). The oxidation state changes from 0 to +5 and 0 to -1 respectively.
Question 29. Which of the following options are not in accordance with the property mentioned against them?
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Answer:
The answer is the option (ii, iii) The correct order of bond dissociation enthalpy is
There is an increase in the ionic character of metal halides with the electronegativity of halogen
Question 30. Which of the following is correct for P4 the molecule of white phosphorus?
(i) It has 6 lone pairs of electrons.
(ii) It has six P–P single bonds.
(iii) It has three P–P single bonds.
(iv) It has four lone pairs of electrons.
Answer:
The answer is the option (ii, iv) Structure of
There are 4 lone pairs of electrons over each P-atom. It has six P – P single bond.
Question 31. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Among halogens, radius ratio between iodine and fluorine is maximum.
(ii) Leaving
(iii) Among interhalogen compounds, the maximum number of atoms are present in iodine fluoride.
(iv) Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than halogen compounds.
Answer:
The answer is the option (i, iii, iv)
Iodine is the largest halogen, while fluorine is the smallest.
Question 32. Which of the following statements are correct for
(i) It acts as a bleaching agent in moist conditions.
(ii) Its molecule has linear geometry.
(iii) Its dilute solution is used as a disinfectant.
(iv) It can be prepared by the reaction of dilute
Answer:
The answer is the option (i, iii).
It is also used as a preservative, disinfectant and anti-chlor.
Question 33. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) All the three N—O bond lengths in
(ii) All P—Cl bond lengths in
(iii)
(iv)
Answer:
The answer is the option (iii, iv).
(i) All the N – O bond in
(ii) In gaseous state, all P – Cl bond lengths in
(iii) White phosphorous is more reactive than the other solid phases because of angular strain in the
(iv) In Solid state
Question 34. Which of the following orders are correct as per the properties mentioned against each?
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Answer:
The answer is the option (i, iv) There is an increase in the acidic strength of the group as we move up the group or left to right along a period. As we move down the group, thermal stability of hydrides decreases.
Question 35. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) S–S bond is present in
(ii) In peroxosulphuric acid
(iii) Iron powder along with
(iv) Change in enthalpy is positive for the preparation of
Answer:
The answer is the option (i, ii)
In
Question 36. In which of the following reactions conc.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Answer:
The answer is the option (ii, iii). Amongst the given options, (ii). and (iii). represent oxidizing behaviour of
Question 37. Which of the following statements are true?
(i) The only type of interactions between particles of noble gases is due to weak dispersion forces.
(ii) Ionisation enthalpy of molecular oxygen is very close to that of xenon.
(iii) Hydrolysis of XeF6 is a redox reaction.
(iv) Xenon fluorides are not reactive.
Answer:
The answer is the option (i, ii). Weak dispersion forces are responsible for attraction in noble gases. Ionization enthalpy of molecular oxygen and xenon are very similar. Also, Xenon fluorides are reactive in nature.
All the short-answer type questions with solutions are given below:
Question 38. In the preparation of
Answer:
Formation of acid fog takes place which is difficult to condense.
Question 40. Write the structure of pyrophosphoric acid.
Answer:
Question 41.
Answer:
Question 42. In
Answer:
The 3 equatorial P–Cl bonds are equivalent whereas 2 axial bonds are longer than equatorial bonds. This is because axial bond pairs suffer more repulsion compared to the equatorial bond pairs.
Question 43. Why is nitric oxide paramagnetic in gaseous state but the solid obtained on cooling it is diamagnetic ?
Answer:
In the gaseous state, nitric oxide
However, in solid state it dimerises to
Question 44. Give reason to explain why
Answer:
Though both
Question 45. Out of
Answer:
Due to higher electronegativity of Oxygen than Sulphur, O-H bond will have a higher electron density closer to the Oxygen atom. The two O-H bonds will repel each other more strongly than S-H bond leading to a larger bond angle in
Question 46.
Answer:
There are two reasons as to why
Fluorine is smaller in size than Chlorine and is easily accommodated around Sulphur atom.
Due to higher electronegativity possessed by fluorine, it can unpair the Sulphur atom to the highest degree (where it attains the oxidation state of +6).
On passing dry chlorine over white phosphorus, first colourless oily phosphorus trichloride is formed.
(i) |
(ii) |
|
|
Yellowish |
Colorless Oily |
White Powder |
Liquid |
phosphosphorous acid |
|
Question 49. Explain why the stability of oxoacids of chlorine increases in the order given below:
Answer:
As number of oxygen atoms around chlorine increases, the electron density moves away from chlorine. It is so because, oxygen atoms are more electronegative than chlorine atoms.
The stability of ions will also increase with a higher number of Oxygen atoms:
Thus due to increase in stability of conjugate base, acidic strength of corresponding acid increases in the following order
Question 50. Explain why ozone is thermodynamically less stable than oxygen.
Answer:
Ozone is thermodynamically unstable with respect to oxygen because its decomposition results in liberation of heat
These 2 factors reinforce each other resulting in large negative Gibbs free energy change
Therefore, the high concentration of ozone can result into dangerous explosion
Question 51.
Calculate the volume of 0.1 M
Answer:
(
Moles of
Acid formed by 1 mol of
Acid formed by 0.005 mol of
0.1 M
0.4 M of
Phosphorus reacts with
Moles of white
1 mol of white
0.5 mol of white
Mass of
Answer:
The 3 oxyacids of nitrogen are:
Nitric acid
Nitrous acid
Hyponitrous acid
The disproportionation reaction wherein the nitrogen is in +3 oxidation state is:
Oxidation state changes from +3 to +5 and +2
Answer:
Reactivity: White phosphorous are more reactive compared to the Red phosphorous as it undergoes more angular strain since the bonds are angled at 60°.
White phosphorous exists as a single molecule where the phosphorous atoms are
Red Phosphorous on the other hands also has a tetrahedral structure, but each tetrahedron is linked to two others as shown below. The bond angle is much more relaxed, leading to a lower reactivity than White phosphorus.
Question 56. Give an example to show the effect of concentration of nitric acid on the formation of oxidation product.
Answer:
We get different oxidation products on reaction of dilute and concentrated nitric acid with copper metals.
For example,
zinc with very dilute
with dilute
and with concentration.
(Very dilute)
(Dilute)
(Concentrated)
Question 57.
Answer:
Question 58. Phosphorus forms a number of oxoacids. Out of these oxoacidsphosphinic acid has strong reducing property. Write its structure and also write a reaction showing its reducing behaviour.
Answer:
One of the oxoacids of phosphorous that has strong reducing property is phosphinic acid or hypophosphorus acid
Its reducing properties are :
All the matching type questions with solutions are given below:
Column I |
Column II | ||
(A) |
|
(1) |
|
(B) |
|
(2) |
|
(C) |
|
(3) |
|
(D) |
|
(4) |
|
(a) A (1) B(3) C(4) D(2)
(b) A (1) B(2) C(4) D(3)
(c) A (4) B(3) C(1) D(2)
(d) A (4) B(1) C(2) D(3)
Answer:
(a)
Compound |
Hybridisation | ||
(i). |
|
(1) |
|
(ii). |
|
(2) |
|
(iii). |
|
(3) |
|
(iv). |
|
(4) |
|
Question 60. Match the formulas of oxides given in Column I with the type of oxide given in Column II and mark the correct option.
Column I |
Column II | ||
(A) |
|
(1) |
Neutral Oxide |
(B) |
|
(2) |
Acidic Oxide |
(C) |
|
(3) |
Basic Oxide |
(D) |
|
(4) |
Mixed Oxide |
(a) A (1) B(2) C(3) D(4)
(b) A (4) B(1) C(2) D(3)
(c) A (3) B(2) C(4) D(1)
(d) A (4) B(3) C(1) D(2)
Answer:
(b). (A
Formulas |
Type of Oxide | ||
(i) |
|
(4) |
Mixed Oxide |
(ii) |
|
(1) |
Neutral Oxide |
(iii) |
|
(2) |
Acidic Oxide |
(iv) |
|
(3) |
Basic Oxide |
Question 61. Match the items of Column I and Column II and mark the correct option.
Column I |
Column II | ||
(A) |
|
(1) |
Highest electron gain enthalpy |
(B) |
|
(2) |
Chalcogen |
(C) |
|
(3) |
Tear gas |
(D) |
|
(4) |
storage batteries |
(a) A (4) B(3) C(1) D(2)
(b) A (3) B(4) C(1) D(2)
(c) A (4) B(1) C(2) D(3)
(d) A (2) B(1) C(3) D(4)
Answer:
(a). (A
Question 62. Match the species given in Column I with the shape given in Column II and mark the correct option.
Column I |
Column II | ||
(A) |
|
(1) |
Tetrahedral |
(B) |
|
(2) |
Pyramidal |
(C) |
|
(3) |
Sea-Saw shaped |
(D) |
|
(4) |
Bent-T-shaped |
(a) A (3) B(2) C(1) D(4)
(b) A (3) B(4) C(2) D(1)
(c) A (1) B(2) C(3) D(4)
(d) A (1) B(4) C(3) D(2)
Answer:
(b) (A
Species |
Shape |
Structure |
|
Sea-Saw shaped |
|
|
Bent-T-shaped |
|
|
Pyramidal |
|
|
Tetrahedral |
|
Question 63. Match the items of Column I and Column II and mark the correct option.
Column I |
Column II | ||
(A) |
Its partial hydrolysis does not change oxidation state of central atom |
(1) |
|
(B) |
It is used in modern diving apparatus |
(2) |
|
(C) |
It is used to provide inert atmosphere for filling electrical bulbs |
(3) |
|
(D) |
Its central atom is in |
(4) |
|
(a) A (1) B(4) C(2) D(3)
(b) A (1) B(2) C(3) D(4)
(c) A (2) B(1) C(4) D(3)
(d) A (1) B(3) C(2) D(4)
Answer:
(c). (A
Oxidation state of
He is utilized in the modern driving apparatus.
Air is used for filling electrical bulbs to provide inert atmosphere.
Xe has 4 bond pair and 2 lone pair and a hybridisation state of
All the assertion-reason type questions with solutions are given below:
Question 64. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (i) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the following choices:
Assertion (I):
Reason (R): Nitrogen has more electron gain enthalpy than phosphorus.
(i) Both Assertion and Reason are correct statements and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(ii) Both Assertion and Reason are correct statements but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(iii) Assertion is correct but the reason is wrong.
(iv) Assertion is wrong but the Reason is correct.
(v) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.
Answer:
The answer is the option (iii). Nitrogen has a higher electron gain enthalpy than Phosphorous. N-N atoms in Nitrogen are bonded by triple bond, whereas Phosphorous atoms are bonded by single P-P bond, due to which Nitrogen has a high bond dissociation energy and is less reactive.
Question 65. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (i) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the following choices:
Assertion (I):
Reason (R):
(i) Both Assertion and Reason are correct statements and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(ii) Both Assertion and Reason are correct statements but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(iii) Assertion is correct but Beason is wrong.
(iv) Assertion is wrong but Reason is correct.
(v) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.
Answer:
The answer is the option (iii). Iron attains passivity due to formation of a thin layer of oxide.
Question 66. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (i) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the following choices:
Assertion (I):
Reason (R):
(i) Both Assertion and Reason are correct statements and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(ii) Both Assertion and Reason are correct statements but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(iii) Assertion is correct but Beason is wrong.
(iv) Assertion is wrong but Reason is correct.
(v) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.
Answer:
The answer is the option (ii). Though correct, both the statements are independent of each other.
Question 67. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (i) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the following choices:
Assertion (i): Both rhombic and monoclinic sulphur exist as
Reason (R): Oxygen forms
(i) Both Assertion and Reason are correct statements and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(ii) Both Assertion and Reason are correct statements but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(iii) Assertion is correct but Beason is wrong.
(iv) Assertion is wrong but Reason is correct.
(v) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.
Answer:
The answer is the option (i). Sulphur cannot form
Question 68. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (i) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the following choices:
Assertion (I):
Reason (R):
(i) Both Assertion and Reason are correct statements and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(ii) Both Assertion and Reason are correct statements but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(iii) Assertion is correct but Beason is wrong.
(iv) Assertion is wrong but Reason is correct.
(v) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.
Answer:
The answer is the option (i).
Question 69. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (i). followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the following choices:
Assertion (i):
Reason (R): Six
(i) Both Assertion and Reason are correct statements and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(ii) Both Assertion and Reason are correct statements but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(iii) Assertion is correct but Beason is wrong.
(iv) Assertion is wrong but Reason is correct.
(v) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.
Answer:
The answer is the option (i).
All the long-answer type questions with solutions are given below:
Answer:
A is sulphur
The gas A is
Some higher-order thinking skills questions with solutions are given below:
Question 1. When a salt is treated with a sodium hydroxide solution, it gives gas X. On passing gas X through reagent Y, a brown-colored precipitate is formed. X and Y, respectively, are
Answer:
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).
Question 2. Evaluate the following statements related to group 14 elements for their correctness.
(A)Covalent radius decreases down the group from
(B) Electronegativity decreases from
(C) Maximum covalence of
(D) Heavier elements do not form
(E) Carbon can exhibit negative oxidation states.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer:
(A) Down the group; the radius increases
(B) Electronegativity does not decrease gradually from
(C) Correct.
(D) Correct.
(E) Range of oxidation state of carbon: -4 to +4
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).
Question 3. The species that do not contain peroixde ions is:
(1) PbO2
(2) H2O2
(3) SrO2
(4) BaO2
Answer:
All members, when heated with oxygen, form oxides. There are mainly two types of oxides, i.e., monoxide and dioxide of formula MO and MO2, respectively. SiO only exists at high temperatures. Oxides in higher oxidation states of elements are generally more acidic than those in lower oxidation states. The dioxides — CO2, SiO2, and GeO2 are acidic, whereas SnO2 and PbO2 are amphoteric in nature. Among monoxides, CO is neutral, GeO is distinctly acidic, whereas SnO and PbO are amphoteric.
In PbO2 , Pb is in +4 oxidation state and oxygen is in a -2 oxidation State. In all other cases, the peroxide ion (
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).
To effectively solve questions of the chapter "P-Block Element", a systematic and structured approach that helps understand the concepts and the theories is given below:
1. Focus on Key Concepts
Each group has similar themes. Focus on:
Electronic configuration
Oxidation states and variable valency
Trends in physical and chemical properties (electronegativity, metallic character, ionization enthalpy)
Important compounds (e.g., NH3, HNO3, SO2, H2SO4, PCl5, etc.)
Anomalous behaviour of the first element (like N or O)
Trends down the group (acidic/basic nature, thermal stability, etc.)
2. Use a Comparative Approach
When solving theory questions:
Compare elements down the group (e.g., N vs P vs As…)
Compare group-wise behaviours (Group 15 vs Group 16)
3. Focus on Structures and Hybridization
Practice how to identify molecular structures (e.g., NH3, SO2, PCl5, ClF3)
Understand types of hybridization (e.g., sp3d for PCl5)
4. Practice Conceptual and Memory-Based Questions
Examples:
Why is N2 less reactive than P4?
Write one use of H2SO4.
Compare the thermal stability of H2O, H2S, H2Se.
What is the oxidation state of Cl in
5. Revise with Tables and Charts
Make group-wise comparison tables for similar trends
Prepare short flashcards for compounds, oxidation states, and trends.
6. Practice previous year questions and solve mock tests.
7. Make suitable short notes and revise them timely.
Some Important general trends in properties across the p-block are given below:
All the topics and subtopics covered in the NCERT exemplar are listed below:
In Class 12 NCERT exemplar solutions chapter 7, the students learn about the different topics and subtopics covered in this chapter, which they need to know and understand. The p-block elements are found on the right side of the periodic table. The p-block is the region of the periodic table that includes columns 3A to 8A and does not include helium. P-block elements are the elements in which the last electron enters any of the three p-orbitals of their respective shells. P block elements are shiny and usually good conductors of electricity.
Class 12 NCERT exemplar chapter-wise solutions are given below:
Class 12 NCERT exemplar subject-wise solutions are given below:
Class 12 NCERT chemistry chapter-wise solutions are given below:
Class 12 NCERT subject-wise solutions are given below:
Class 12 NCERT subject-wise notes are given below:
The NCERT books and syllabus links for class 12 are given below:
Types of elements are found in the p-block
Group 15 elements (Nitrogen, Phosphorus, etc.) can exhibit a range of oxidation states from -3 to +5.
The general trends of electronegativity and ionization enthalpy across the p-block are:
The staircase line or diagonal line separating metals and nonmetals in the p-block. It is important because the elements immediately bordering this line are metalloids (Elements with properties intermediate between metals and nonmetals).
Changing from the CBSE board to the Odisha CHSE in Class 12 is generally difficult and often not ideal due to differences in syllabi and examination structures. Most boards, including Odisha CHSE , do not recommend switching in the final year of schooling. It is crucial to consult both CBSE and Odisha CHSE authorities for specific policies, but making such a change earlier is advisable to prevent academic complications.
Hello there! Thanks for reaching out to us at Careers360.
Ah, you're looking for CBSE quarterly question papers for mathematics, right? Those can be super helpful for exam prep.
Unfortunately, CBSE doesn't officially release quarterly papers - they mainly put out sample papers and previous years' board exam papers. But don't worry, there are still some good options to help you practice!
Have you checked out the CBSE sample papers on their official website? Those are usually pretty close to the actual exam format. You could also look into previous years' board exam papers - they're great for getting a feel for the types of questions that might come up.
If you're after more practice material, some textbook publishers release their own mock papers which can be useful too.
Let me know if you need any other tips for your math prep. Good luck with your studies!
It's understandable to feel disheartened after facing a compartment exam, especially when you've invested significant effort. However, it's important to remember that setbacks are a part of life, and they can be opportunities for growth.
Possible steps:
Re-evaluate Your Study Strategies:
Consider Professional Help:
Explore Alternative Options:
Focus on NEET 2025 Preparation:
Seek Support:
Remember: This is a temporary setback. With the right approach and perseverance, you can overcome this challenge and achieve your goals.
I hope this information helps you.
Hi,
Qualifications:
Age: As of the last registration date, you must be between the ages of 16 and 40.
Qualification: You must have graduated from an accredited board or at least passed the tenth grade. Higher qualifications are also accepted, such as a diploma, postgraduate degree, graduation, or 11th or 12th grade.
How to Apply:
Get the Medhavi app by visiting the Google Play Store.
Register: In the app, create an account.
Examine Notification: Examine the comprehensive notification on the scholarship examination.
Sign up to Take the Test: Finish the app's registration process.
Examine: The Medhavi app allows you to take the exam from the comfort of your home.
Get Results: In just two days, the results are made public.
Verification of Documents: Provide the required paperwork and bank account information for validation.
Get Scholarship: Following a successful verification process, the scholarship will be given. You need to have at least passed the 10th grade/matriculation scholarship amount will be transferred directly to your bank account.
Scholarship Details:
Type A: For candidates scoring 60% or above in the exam.
Type B: For candidates scoring between 50% and 60%.
Type C: For candidates scoring between 40% and 50%.
Cash Scholarship:
Scholarships can range from Rs. 2,000 to Rs. 18,000 per month, depending on the marks obtained and the type of scholarship exam (SAKSHAM, SWABHIMAN, SAMADHAN, etc.).
Since you already have a 12th grade qualification with 84%, you meet the qualification criteria and are eligible to apply for the Medhavi Scholarship exam. Make sure to prepare well for the exam to maximize your chances of receiving a higher scholarship.
Hope you find this useful!
hello mahima,
If you have uploaded screenshot of your 12th board result taken from CBSE official website,there won,t be a problem with that.If the screenshot that you have uploaded is clear and legible. It should display your name, roll number, marks obtained, and any other relevant details in a readable forma.ALSO, the screenshot clearly show it is from the official CBSE results portal.
hope this helps.
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