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NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6 Principles and Processes of isolation of elements

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NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6 Principles and Processes of isolation of elements

Edited By Sumit Saini | Updated on Sep 16, 2022 05:34 PM IST | #CBSE Class 12th

NCERT exemplar Class 12 Chemistry solutions chapter 6 is important from an examination point of view. The professionals who have deep knowledge in this field have prepared NCERT exemplar Class 12 Chemistry chapter 6 solutions to provide the students with correct and precise information. The experts have used simple language to answer the questions to prepare NCERT exemplar Class 12 Chemistry chapter 6 solutions. The students usually study from this study material to get the learning experience that is best for them. NCERT exemplar Class 12 Chemistry solutions chapter 6 pdf download is very useful to access it offline.

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6: MCQ (Type 1)

Question:1

In the extraction of chlorine by electrolysis of brine ____________.
(i) oxidation of \text {Cl}^{-} ion to chlorine gas occurs.
(ii) reduction of \text {Cl}^{-} ion to chlorine gas occurs.
(iii) For the overall reaction, \Delta \text {G}^{\ominus } has a negative value.
(iv) a displacement reaction takes place.
Answer:

The answer is the option (i). The oxidation reaction of \text {Cl}^{-} ion is responsible for the extraction of chlorine from brine
2H_{2}O(l)+2Cl^{-}(aq)\rightarrow H_{2}(g)+Cl_{2}(g)+2OH^{-}(aq)
The \Delta G^{0} for this reaction is +422\; kJ
\Delta G^{0}=-nFE^{0}
E^{0}=\frac{\Delta G^{0}}{nF}=-2.2 V

Question:2

When copper ore is mixed with silica, in a reverberatory furnace copper matte is produced. The copper matte contains ____________.
(i) sulphides of copper (II) and iron (II)
(ii) sulphides of copper (II) and iron (III)
(iii) sulphides of copper (I) and iron (II)
(iv) sulphides of copper (I) and iron (III)
Answer:

The answer is the option (iii). Inside a reverberatory furnace iron silicate on mixing copper ore with silica in a reverberatory furnace, iron silicate comes off as slag producing copper in the form of copper matte containing copper sulphide [Cu_{2}S(I)] and some iron sulphide [FeS(II)].

Question:3

Which of the following reactions is an example of autoreduction ?
(i) \text {Fe}_{3}\text {O}_{4}+\text {4CO}\rightarrow \text {3Fe}+\text {4CO}_{2}
(ii) \text {Cu}_{2}\text {O}+\text {C}\rightarrow \text {2Cu}+\text {CO}
(iii) \text {Cu}^{2+}(aq)+Fe (s)\rightarrow \text {Cu (s)}+Fe^{2+}(aq)
(iv) \text {Cu}_{2}\text {O}+\frac{1}{2}\text {Cu}_{2}\text {S}\rightarrow \text {3Cu }+\frac{1}{2}\text {SO}_{2}
Answer:

\text {Cu}_{2}\text {O}+\frac{1}{2}\text {Cu}_{2}\text {S}\rightarrow \text {3Cu }+\frac{1}{2}\text {SO}_{2}
In this reaction reduction of copper (I) oxide by copper (I) sulphide takes place. Since, copper is reduced by itself, this process is known as auto-reduction and the solidified copper so, obtained is known as blister copper. We get the copper metal on reaction of sulphide ore of copper with its oxide.

Question:4

A number of elements are available in earth’s crust but most abundant elements are ____________.
(i) \text {Al and Fe}
(ii) \text {Al and Cu}
(iii) \text {Fe and Cu}
(iv) \text {Cu and Ag}
Answer:

The answer is the option (i). A number of elements are available in the earth’s crust but the most abundant elements in the earth’s crust include \text {Al and Fe}.

Question:5

Zone refining is based on the principle that ___________.
(i) impurities of low boiling metals can be separated by distillation.
(ii) impurities are more soluble in molten metal than in solid metal.
(iii) different components of a mixture are differently adsorbed on an absorbent.
(iv) vapours of the volatile compound can be decomposed in pure metal.
Answer:

The answer is the option (ii). The basic principle of zone refining method is that impurities are more soluble in molten metal compared to the solid state of the metal.

Question:6

In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is formed by the reduction of Cu_{2}O with
(i) \; FeS
(ii) \; CO
(iii) \; Cu_{2}S
(iv) \; SO_{2}
Answer:

The answer is the option (iii). In the process of extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is formed by the reduction of Cu_{2}O with Cu_{2}S
Since, copper is reduced by itself the process is known as autoreduction.
Chemical reaction occuring in this reaction is Cu_2 O+\frac{1}{2} Cu_2 S\rightarrow 3Cu+\frac{1}{2} SO_2
In this process, copper appears as blister copper.

Question:7

Brine is electrolysed by using inert electrodes. The reaction at anode is ________.
(i) Cl^{-}(aq.)\rightarrow \frac{1}{2}Cl_{2}(g)+e^{-};E^{o}cell=1.36 \; V
(ii) 2H_{2}O(l)\rightarrow O_{2}(g)+4H^{+}+4e^{-};E^{o}cell=1.23 \; V
(iii) Na^{+}(aq)+e^{-}\rightarrow Na (s);E^{0}cell=2.71\; V
(iv) H^{+}(aq)+e^{-}\rightarrow \frac{1}{2}H_{2} (g);E^{0}cell=0.00\; V

Answer:

The answer is the option (i). Electrolysis of brine solution is a process of decomposition of NaCl solution using the electric current. Anode is positive; therefore it attracts negative hydroxide and chlorine ions. Chloride ions get oxidized by electron loss to chlorine molecules.

Question:8

In the metallurgy of aluminium ________________.
(i) Al^{3+} is oxidised to Al (s).
(ii) graphite anode is oxidised to carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide.
(iii) the oxidation state of oxygen changes in the reaction at the anode.
(iv) the oxidation state of oxygen changes in the overall reaction involved in the process
Answer:

The answer is the option (ii). The graphite anode is oxidized to carbon monoxide (CO) and carbon dioxide (CO_{2}) in the process of metallurgy of aluminium .
C(s)+O^{2-}(melt)\rightarrow CO(g)+2e^{-}
C(s)+2O^{2-}(melt)\rightarrow CO_{2}(g)+4e^{-}

Question:9

Electrolytic refining is used to purify which of the following metals?
(i) \; Cu \; and\; Zn
(ii) \; Ge \; and \; Si
(iii)\; Zr \; and\; Ti
(iv) \; Zn \; and\; Hg
Answer:

The answer is the option (i). Copper and zinc can be purified by using electrolyte refining method. In this process, impure metal acts as anode and a strip of pure metal is used as a cathode. Impurities from the blister copper or impure zinc deposit are used as anode mud. The electrolytic refining of copper and zinc is done to get high grade metals.

Question:10

Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching the metal with CN^- ion. The metal is recovered by ________________.
(i) displacement of metal by some other metal from the complex ion.
(ii) roasting of the metal complex.
(iii) calcination followed by roasting.
(iv) thermal decomposition of the metal complex.
Answer:

The answer is the option (i). Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with CN- ion. The metal in cyanide process is recovered by displacement of metal by some other metal from the complex ion. The reaction taking place is as:
4M+8CN^{-}+2H_{2}O+O_{2}\rightarrow 4[M(CN)_{2}]^{-}+4OH^{-}
2[M(CN)_{2}]^{-}+Zn\rightarrow [Zn(CN)_{4}]^{2-}+2M

Question:11

Answer the questions 11-13 on the basis of Fig. 6.1.

Choose the correct option of temperature at which carbon reduces \text {FeO} to iron and produces \text {CO}.

(i) Below temperature at point A.
(ii) Approximately at the temperature corresponding to point A.
(iii) Above temperature at point A but below a temperature at point D.
(iv) Above temperature at point A.
Answer:

The answer is the option (iv) \text {FeO+C}\rightarrow \text {Fe+CO}
It can be seen as a couple of two simpler reactions
\text {FeO}\rightarrow \text {Fe+}\frac{1}{2}\text {O}_{2}(\Delta \text {G}^{0}_{FeO.Fe})
\text {C+}\frac{1}{2}\text {O}_{2}\rightarrow \text {CO}(\Delta \text {G}^{0}_{C.CO})
Total Gibbs energy change becomes \Delta \text {G}^{0}_{C.CO}+\Delta\text {G}_{FeO.Fe}^{0}
In \Delta \text {G}^{0} versus T plot, the plot \text {Fe} to \text {FeO} goes upward and the plot for \text {C} to \text {CO} goes downwards.
At temperature above point A, the \text {C} to \text {CO} lines comes below \text {Fe} to \text {FeO} and \Delta \text {G}^{0}_{C,CO} < \Delta \text {G}^{0}_{Fe, FeO}
So in this range, \text {C} will reduce \text {FeO} to \text {Fe} and itself be oxidised to \text {CO}.

Question:12

Below point ‘A’ \text {FeO} can ______________.
(i) be reduced by carbon monoxide only.
(ii) be reduced by both carbon monoxide and carbon.
(iii) be reduced by carbon only.
(iv) not be reduced by both carbon and carbon monoxide.
Answer:

The answer is the option (i). Below point A, \text {FeO} can be reduced by carbon monoxide only.

Question:13

For the reduction of \text {FeO} at the temperature corresponding to point D, which of the following statements is correct?
(i) \Delta \text {G} value for the overall reduction reaction with carbon monoxide is zero.
(ii) \Delta \text {G} value for the overall reduction reaction with a mixture of 1 mol carbon and 1 mol oxygen is positive.
(iii) \Delta \text {G} value for the overall reduction reaction with a mixture of 2 mol carbon and 1 mol oxygen will be positive.
(iv) \Delta \text {G} value for the overall reduction reaction with carbon monoxide is negative.
Answer:

The answer is the option (i). At point D, the curves of oxidation of iron and oxidation of \text {CO} intersect each other.
Thus, \Delta \text {G}^{0} for the reaction \text {FeO+CO}\rightarrow \text {Fe+CO}_{2} is zero.
\text {2FeO+O}_{2}\rightarrow \text {2FeO};\Delta \text {G}^{0}=-280
\text {2CO+O}_{2}\rightarrow \text {2CO};\Delta \text {G}^{0}=-280
Resulting in \text {2FeO+2CO}_{2}\rightarrow \text {2Fe+2CO}_{2}
\Delta \text {G}^{0}= (-280+280)=0

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6: MCQ (Type 2)

Question:14

At the temperature corresponding to which of the points in Fig.6.1, \text {FeO} will be reduced to \text {Fe} by coupling the reaction \text {2FeO}\rightarrow \text {2Fe+O}_{2} with all of the following reactions?
(i) \text {C+O}_{2}\rightarrow \text {CO}_{2}
(ii) \text {2C+O}_{2}\rightarrow \text {2CO} and
(iii) \text {2CO+O}_{2}\rightarrow \text {2CO} _{2}

(i) Point A
(ii) Point B
(iii) Point D
(iv) Point E
Answer:

The answer is the option (ii, iv) The reduction reaction ranges can be determined from the intersection points on \Delta \text {G}^{0} versus T plots.
The reduction of \text {FeO} to \text {Fe} takes place at point B and E because at these points \Delta \text {G}^{0} value of all three oxidation reactions is lesser than that of reduction reaction.

Question:15

Which of the following option are correct?
(i) Cast iron is obtained by remelting pig iron with scrap iron and coke using hot air blast.
(ii) In the extraction of silver, silver is extracted as cationic complex.
(iii) Nickel is purified by zone refining.
(iv) \text {Zr and Ti} and are purified by van Arkel method
Answer:

The answer is the option (i, iv) Iron obtained from blast containing about 4% carbon and many impurities such as Mn, P, Si, etc is called pig iron. It is remelted with scrap iron to obtain cast iron which has slightly less carbon content (3%) compared to pig iron and is extremely hard and brittle.
For refining of \text {Zr and Ti} Van Arkel method based on the thermal decomposition of metal components is used. In this method, the impurities i.e. oxygen and nitrogen are removed by heating metal in an evacuated vessel with iodine.
\text {Zr (s)}+\text {2 I}_{2}\overset{\text {280 k}}{\rightarrow}\text {ZrI}_{4}\text {(g)} \overset{\text {2075 k}}{\rightarrow}\text {Zr (s)}\text {(pure)}+\text {2 I}_{2}
\text {Ti}+\text {2I}_{2}\overset{\text {530 k}}{\rightarrow}\text {TI}_{4}\overset{\text {1700 k}}{\rightarrow}\text {Ti}+\text {2I}_{2}
Zone refining is used for semiconductors like Ge, Si. For purification of Nickel, Mond’s process is used.

Question:16

In the extraction of aluminium by Hall-Heroult process, purified \text {Al}_{2}\text {O}_{3} is mixed with \text {CaF}_{2} to
(i) lower the melting point of \text {Al}_{2}\text {O}_{3}
(ii) increase the conductivity of molten mixture.
(iii) reduce \text {Al}^{3+} into Al(s).
(iv) acts as a catalyst
Answer:

The answer is the option (i, ii) Purified \text {Al}_{2}\text {O}_{3} is mixed with \text {CaF}_{2} in Hall-Heroult process to lower the melting point of \text {Al}_{2}\text {O}_{3} and increase the conductivity of the molten mixture. Hence, option a and b are correct.

Question:17

Which of the following statements is correct about the role of substances added in the froth floatation process?
(i) Collectors enhance the non-wettability of the mineral particles.
(ii) Collectors enhance the wettability of gangue particles.
(iii) By using depressants in the process two sulphide ores can be separated.
(iv) Froth stabilisers decrease wettability of gangue.
Answer:

The answer is the option (i, iii) To enhance the non-wettability of mineral particles as well as froth stabilisers, collectors like sodium ethyl xanthate are used.
For example, sodium cyanide acts as a depressant for zinc sulphide in the process of concentration of galena ore. Depressants can be used for the separation of two sulphide ores.
Froth stabilizers are used to stabilize the froth in the process.

Question:18

In the Froth Floatation process, zinc sulphide and lead sulphide can be separated by ______________.
(i) using collectors.
(ii) adjusting the proportion of oil to water.
(iii) using depressant.
(iv) using froth stabilisers.
Answer:

The answer is the option (ii, iii) Froth floatation method is used in extraction of metal from sulphide ore. The two sulphide ores can be separated by using depressant and adjusting the proportion of oil to water in the froth floatation process. Depressant used in separation of zinc sulphide and lead sulphide is NaCN. It is utilized in selective prevention of ZnS from coming to the froth.

Question:19

Common impurities present in bauxite are ____________.
(i) \text {CuO}
(ii) \text {ZnO}
(iii) \text {Fe}_{2}\text {O}_{3}
(iv) \text {SiO}_{2}
Answer:

The answer is the option (iii, iv) some of the major impurities in bauxite are iron oxides (goethite and hematite), silicon dioxide, kaolinite and small amounts of anatase.

Question:20

Which of the following ores are concentrated by froth flotation?
(i) Haematite
(ii) Galena
(iii) Copper pyrites
(iv) Magnetite
Answer:

The answer is the option (ii, iii) Sulphide ores are concentrated by froth floatation process as pine oil selectively wets the sulphide ore. Galena and copper pyrite, being sulphide ores are concentrated by froth floatation process.

Question:21

Which of the following reactions occur during calcination?
(i) \text {CaCO}_{3}\rightarrow \text {CaO}+ \text {CO}_{2}
(ii) \text {2FeS}_{2}+\frac{11}{2}\text {O}_{2}\rightarrow \text {Fe}_{2}\text {O}_{3}+ \text {4SO}_{2}
(iii) \text {Al}_{2}\text {O}_{3}.x\text {H}_{2}\text {O}\rightarrow \text {Al}_{2}\text {O}_{3}+ x \text {H}_{2}\text {O}
(iv) \text {ZnS}+\frac{3}{\text {2}}O_{2}\rightarrow \text {ZnO}+\text {SO}_{2}
Answer:

The answer is the option (i, iii). In the process of calcination, heating of the ore below its melting in limited supply of air takes place. Ores that contain oxygen like oxide, hydroxides or carbonates are calcined. The reaction that takes place is:
\text {CaCO}_{3}\overset{\Delta }{\rightarrow}\text {CaO}+\text {CO}_{2}
\text {Al}_{2}\text {O}_{3}.\text {xH}_{2}\text {O}\overset{\Delta }{\rightarrow}\text {Al}_{2}\text {O}_{3}+ \text {xH}_{2}\text {O}

Question:22

For the metallurgical process of which of the ores calcined ore can be reduced by carbon?
(i) haematite
(ii) calamine
(iii) iron pyrites
(iv) sphalerite
Answer:

The answer is the option (i, ii). Oxides reduction can be done by using carbon. Haematite (Iron ore - \text {Fe}_{2}\text {O}_{3} ) and calamine \text {ZnCO}_{3}\rightarrow \text {ZnO}+\text {CO}_{2} contain oxygen, so they can be reduced by carbon.
Sulphide ores cannot be reduced by carbon. Iron pyrite and sphalerite are sulphide ores of iron and zinc respectively.

Question:23

The main reactions occurring in the blast furnace during the extraction of iron from haematite are ________.
(i) \text {Fe}_{2}\text {O}_{3}+\text {3CO}\rightarrow \text {2Fe}+\text {3CO}_{2}
(ii) \text {FeO}+\text {SiO}_{2}\rightarrow \text {FeSiO}_{3}
(iii) \text {Fe}_{2}\text {O}_{3}+\text {3C}\rightarrow \text {2Fe}+\text {3CO}
(iv) \text {CaO}+\text {SiO}_{2}\rightarrow \text {CaSiO}_{3}
Answer:

The answer is the option (i, iv). The 2 main reactions taking place in blast furnace during extraction of iron are:
(i) Reduction of \text {Fe}_{2}\text {O}_{3}+\text {CO}\rightarrow \text {2FeO}+\text {CO}_{2}
\text {2FeO}+\text {2CO}\rightarrow \text {2Fe}+\text {2CO}_{2}
\text {Fe}_{2}\text {O}_{3}+\text {3CO}\rightarrow \text {2Fe}+\text {3CO}_{2}
(ii) Slag formation \text {CaO}+\text {SiO}_{2}\rightarrow \text {CaSiO}_{3} \; \text {Fusible slag}

Question:24

In which of the following method of purification, metal is converted to its volatile compound which is decomposed to give pure metal?
(i) heating with a stream of carbon monoxide.
(ii) heating with iodine.
(iii) liquation.
(iv) distillation.
Answer:

The answer is the option (i,ii)
(i) Heating of metal with stream of \text {CO}
\text {Ni}+\text {4CO}\rightarrow \text {Ni}\text {(CO)}_{4}\overset{450-470\text {k}}{\rightarrow}\text {Ni+4CO}\; \; \text {Mond's Process}
(ii) Heating with Iodine
\text {Zr+2I}_{2}\overset{870\text {k}}{\rightarrow}\text {ZrI}_{4}\overset{2075\; \text {K}(Tungsten filament)}{\rightarrow}\text {Zr+2I}_{2}\text {(van arkel method)}

Question:25

Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) A depressant prevents a certain type of particle to come to the froth.
(ii) Copper matte contains \text {Cu}_{2}\text {S} and \text {ZnS}
(iii) The solidified copper obtained from the reverberatory furnace has blistered appearance due to evolution of \text {SO}_{2} during the extraction.
(iv) Zinc can be extracted by self-reduction.
Answer:

The answer is the option (i, iii). Frothing of a particular sulphide can be prevented by depressants. The solidified copper that we get in reverberatory furnace has blistered appearance due to evolution of \text {SO}_{2} during extraction. Hence, it is called blister copper.

Question:26

In the extraction of chlorine from brine _____________.
(i) \Delta \text {G}^{0} for the overall reaction is negative.
(ii) \Delta \text {G}^{0} for the overall reaction is positive.
(iii) \text {E}^{0} for the overall reaction has negative value.
(iv) \text {E}^{0} for the overall reaction has positive value.
Answer:

The answeris the option (ii,iii). 3Cl^{-}+2H_{2}O\rightarrow 2OH^{-}+H_{2}+Cl_{2}
\Delta G^{0} for the reaction is +422\; kJ
Using \Delta G^{0}=-nFE^{0}, we get E^{0}=-2.2\; V

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6: Short Answer Type

Question:27

Why is an external emf of more than 2.2V required for the extraction of Cl_{2} from brine?
Answer:

In the process of extraction of Cl_{2} from brine solution :
2Cl^{-}(aq)+2H_{2}O(l)\rightarrow 2OH^{-}(aq)+H_{2}(g)+Cl_{2}(g) the value of \Delta G^{\Theta } is +ve \; (422\; KJ).
For this the value of E^{\Theta } is \Delta G^{\Theta }=-nFE^{\Theta } or E^{\Theta }=-\frac{\Delta G^{\Theta }}{nF}=-\frac{422\times 10^{3}J}{2\times 96500}=-2.20\; V
Hence, An external emf more than 2.20 V is required for extraction of Cl_{2} from brine solution for electrolysis process.

Question:28

At temperatures above 1073K coke can be used to reduce FeO\; to \; Fe. How can you justify this reduction with the Ellingham diagram?
Answer:

As per Ellingham diagram at temperature greater than 1073 K, \Delta G^{0} for the formation FeO is less negative than \Delta G^{0} for the formation of carbon monoxide from carbon.
Thus, above 1073 K, carbon can reduce FeO, i.e., \Delta_{r} G^{0} for the reaction
FeO+C\overset{>1073}{\rightarrow}Fe+CO\; \text {is negative}

Question:29

Wrought iron is the purest form of iron. Write a reaction used for the preparation of wrought iron from cast iron. How can the impurities of sulphur, silicon and phosphorus be removed from cast iron?
Answer:

Wrought iron is an alloy with a very low carbon content (less than 0.08%).
The reaction is:
Fe_{2}O_{3}+3C\rightarrow 2Fe+3CO

In extraction of cast iron from haematite ore, on addition of limestone as flux, the impurities of sulphur, silicon and phosphorus pass into slag on changing to their oxides.

Question:30

How is copper extracted from low-grade copper ores?
Answer:

Copper is extracted from low grade ores by the process of hydrometallurgy. Acid or bacteria is used in its leaching process. In the process, ore is treated with a suitable regent that dissolves ore but not the impurities. Scrap iron, zinc or H_{2} is used to treat the solution containing copper ions (Cu^{+2}) and the reactions are as:
Cu^{2+} (aq)+H_{2} (g) \rightarrow Cu(s)+2H^{+} (aq)
Cu^{2+} (aq)+Fe (s) \rightarrow Cu(s)+Fe^{2+} (aq)
In this way, copper, is obtained.

Question:31

Write two basic requirements for refining of metal by Mond process and by Van Arkel Method
Answer:

Mond’s process and van arkel method are used for refining of nickel and zinc, respectively. The basic requirements for both the processes are:
(i) A volatile compound should be formed by the metal on reaction with an available reagent.
(ii) The volatile compound formed should be easily decomposable, enabling the metal to be easily recovered.

Question:32

Although carbon and hydrogen are better-reducing agents they are not used to reduce metallic oxides at high temperatures. Why?
Answer:

Despite being better reducing agents, carbon and hydrogen are not used as carbon and hydrogen form carbides and hydrides respectively on reaction with metals at high temperature.

Question:33

How do we separate two sulphide ores by Froth Floatation Method? Explain with an example.
Answer:

The separation of two sulphide ores is done by adjusting proportion of oil to water or by using depressants. NaCN is used for an ore containing ZnS and PbS. Sodium cyanide forms complex with ZnS and prevents it from coming with froth but lead sulphide remains with froth.
4NaCN+ZnS\rightarrow Na_{2}Zn(CN)_{4}+Na_{2}S

Question:34

The purest form of iron is prepared by oxidising impurities from cast iron in a reverberatory furnace. Which iron ore is used to line the furnace? Explain by giving a reaction.
Answer:

Haematite (Fe_{2}O_{3}) is used to line the furnace. It supplies the oxygen and oxidises impurities present in the cast iron like carbon, silicon, manganese and phosphorus to CO, SiO_{2}, MnO and P_{2}O_{5}.
Fe_{2}O_{3}+3C\overset{Heat}{\rightarrow}2Fe+3CO
3Si+2Fe_{2} O_3\rightarrow 4Fe+3SiO_2
3S+2Fe_2 O_3\rightarrow 3SO_2+4Fe
CO and SO_{2} escape and MnO \; and\; SiO_{2} combine to form to form manganous silicate (MnSiO_{3}) as slag MnO+SiO_{2}\overset{Heat}{\rightarrow}MnSiO_{3} (Manganous silicate-slag)

Question:36

Why is sulphide ore of copper heated in a furnace after mixing with silica?
Answer:

Iron oxide that is present as impurity in sulphide ore of copper forms an iron silicate slag and copper is produced in the form of copper matte. This is why, sulphide ore of copper is heated in a furnace after mixing with silica.
FeO+SiO_{2}\rightarrow FeSiO_{3}

Question:37

Why are sulphide ores converted to oxide before reduction?
Answer:

Sulphides are not reduced easily unlike the oxides. This is why, sulphides are first oxidised and then subjected to reduction.

Question:38

Which method is used for refining Zr \; and\; Ti ? Explain with equation.
Answer:

Van Arkel method is used in refining of Zr \; and\; Ti . The crude metal, on heating with iodine forms volatile unstable compound. Pure metal is then obtained by decomposing the compound.
The equations are : \text {Zr (s) (impure)+2I}_{2}\overset{870\; K}{\rightarrow}\text {ZrI}_{4}
\text {ZrI}_{4}\overset{1800\; K}{\rightarrow}\text {Zr (pure)+2I}_{2}
\text {Ti (impure)+2I}_{2}\overset{523\; K}{\rightarrow}\text {TiI}_{4} \text {(g)}
\text {TiI}_{4}\overset{1700\; K}{\rightarrow}\text {Ti (pure)+2I}_{2}

Question:39

What should be the considerations during the extraction of metals by electrochemical method?
Answer:

During the extraction of metals by electrochemical method we should keep in mind the following factors
(i) Reactivity of the metal.
(ii) Suitability of the electrode.

Question:40

What is the role of flux in metallurgical processes?
Answer:

Flux is a chemical cleaning agent.
The ores contain some gangue even after concentration. Certain substances are mixed with concentrated ore for the purpose of removing the gangue. They combine with the gangue to form a fusible material that is insoluble in molten metal. These substances are called fluxes. Some examples of materials used as flux: Limestone, silica, dolomite, lime, borax etc.
Fluxes are classified as acidic or basic based on the type of impurities they remove.
SiO_{2}\; (Acidic\; acid)+CaO\; (basic\; impurity)\rightarrow CaSiO_{3}(Slag)
MgO\; (basic\; flux)+SiO_{2}\; (Acidic\; impurity)\rightarrow MgSiO_{3}(Slag)

Question:41

How are metals used as semiconductors refined? What is the principle of the method used?
Answer:

Semiconductor like silicon and germanium is produced by zone refining method and the principle used is that the impurities are more soluble in melt than the corresponding solid state of metals.

Question:42

Write down the reactions taking place in Blast furnace-related to the metallurgy of iron in the temperature range 500-800K.

Answer:

The reactions that take place in blast furnace during the metallurgy of iron at the temperature range 500-800 K are:
3Fe_{2}O_{3}+CO\rightarrow 2Fe_{3}O_{4}+CO_{2}
Fe_{3}O_{4}+4CO\rightarrow 3Fe+4CO_{2}
Fe_{2}O_{3}+CO\rightarrow 2FeO+CO_{2}

Question:43

Give two requirements for vapour phase refining.
Answer:

The two requirements for vapour phase refining are:
(i) A volatile compound should be formed by the metal on reaction with an available reagent.
(ii) The volatile compound formed should be easily decomposable, enabling the metal to be easily recovered.

Question:44

Write the chemical reactions involved in the extraction of gold by the cyanide process. Also, give the role of zinc in the extraction.
Answer:

In extraction of gold by cyanide process, gold particles present in the ore are treated with a dilute solution of NaCN in the presence of atmospheric oxygen. Gold particles dissolve by forming complex cyanide that is soluble in nature.
4Au+8NaCN+2H_{2}O+O_{2}\rightarrow 4Na[Au(CN)_{2}]+4NaOH
On adding electropositive metal like zinc Au is recovered from solution.
2Na [Au(CN)_{2}]+Zn\rightarrow Na_{2}[Zn(CN)_{4}]+2Au
The process of extraction of gold by cyanide oxidation as well as reduction. oxidation of gold takes place during the formation of cyanide complex whereas reduction takes place during its recovery. Zn acts as a reducing agent.

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6: Matching Type

Question:45

Match the items of Column I with items of Column II and assign the correct code:

Column I

Column II

(A) Pendulum

(1) Chrome steel

(B) Malachite

(2) Nickel steel

(C) Calamine

(3) Na_{3}AlF_{6}

(D) Cryolite

(4) CuCO_{3}.Cu(OH)_{2}



(5) ZnCO_{3}

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(i) A (1) B (2) C (3) D (4)
(ii) A (2) B (4) C (5) D (3)
(iii) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5)
(iv) A (4) B (5) C (3) D (2)

Answer:

Option (ii) is the answer.

Question:46

Match the items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code :

Column I

Column II

(A) Coloured bands

(1) Zone refining

(B) Impure metal to volatile complex

(2) Fractional distillation

(C) Purification of Ge \; and \; Si

(3) Mond Process

(D) Purification of mercury

(4) Chromatography



(5) Liquation

(i) A (1) B (2) C (4) D (5)
(ii) A (4) B (3) C (1) D (2)
(iii) A (3) B (4) C (2) D (1)
(iv) A (5) B (4) C (3) D (2)

Answer:

Option (ii) is the answer.

Question:47

Match items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code :

Column I

Column II

(A) Cyanide process

(1) Ultrapure Ge

(B) Froth Floatation Process

(2) Dressing of ZnS

(C) Electrolytic reduction

(3) Extraction of Al

(D) Zone refining

(4) Extraction of Au



(5) Purification of Ni

(i) A (4) B (2) C (3) D (1)
(ii) A (2) B (3) C (1) D (5)
(iii) A (1) B (2) C (3) D (4)
(iv) A (3) B (4) C (5) D (1)

Answer:

Option (i) is the answer.

Question:48

Match the items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code:

Column I

Column II

(A) Sapphire

(1) \text {Al}_{2}\text {O}_{3}

(B) Sphalerite

(2) \text {NaCN}

(C) Depressant

(3) \text {Co}

(D) Corundum

(4) \text {ZnS}



(5) \text {Fe}_{2}\text {O}_{3}

(i) A (3) B (4) C (2) D (1)
(ii) A (5) B (4) C (3) D (2)
(iii) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5)
(iv) A (1) B (2) C (3) D (4)

Answer:

Option (i) is the answer.


Question:49

Match the items of Column I with items of Column II and assign the correct code :

Column I

Column II

(A) Blistered Cu

(1) Aluminium

(B) Blast furnace

(2) 2Cu_{2}O+Cu_{2}S\rightarrow 6Cu+SO_{2}

(C) Reverberatory furnace

(3) Iron

(D) Hall-Heroult proess

(4) FeO+SiO_{2}\rightarrow FeSiO_{3}



(5) 2Cu_{2}S+3O_{2}\rightarrow 2Cu_{2}O+2SO_{2}

(i) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1)
(ii) A (1) B (2) C (3) D (5)
(iii) A (5) B (4) C (3) D (2)
(iv) A (4) B (5) C (3) D (2)
Answer:

Option (i) is the answer.

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6: Assertion and Reason Type

Question:50

In the following question, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
Assertion: Nickel can be purified by Mond process.
Reason:Ni(CO)_{4} is a volatile compound which decomposes at 460K to give pure Ni.

(i) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(ii) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(iii) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(iv) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
(v) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
Answer:

The answer is the option (i). For Mond’s process, the pre-requisites include:
(i) A volatile compound should be formed by the metal on reaction with an available reagent.
(ii) The volatile compound formed should be easily decomposable, enabling the metal to be easily recovered.
Ni(CO)_{4} is a volatile compound which decomposes to give pure nickel on heating at 460 K while CO (Carbon monoxide) is removed as gas.

Question:51

In the following question, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
Assertion: Zirconium can be purified by Van Arkel method.
Reason: ZrI_{4} is volatile and decomposes at 1800K.

(i) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(ii) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(iii) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(iv) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
(v) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
Answer:

The answer is the option (i). Zirconium is also purified by Van Arkel method as it forms ZrI_{4} on treating with iodine and is easily decomposable to get pure zirconium.

Question:52

In the following question, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
Assertion: Sulphide ores are concentrated by Froth Flotation method.
Reason: Cresols stabilise the froth in the Froth Flotation Method.

(i) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(ii) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(iii) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(iv) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
(v) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
Answer:

The answer is the option (ii). Sulphide ores on being wetted by oil, becomes lighter and rises to the surface along with froths. On the other hand, impurities wetted by water settle down as they get heavier.

Question:53

In the following question, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
Assertion: Zone refining method is very useful for producing semiconductors.
Reason: Semiconductors are of high purity.

(i) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(ii) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(iii) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(iv) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
(v) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
Answer:

The answer is the option (ii).The principle of the zone refining method is that the the impurities of semiconductors are more soluble in the molten zone compared to the solid state and the ultrapure semiconductor crystallizes.

Question:54

In the following question, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
Assertion: Hydrometallurgy involves dissolving the ore in a suitable reagent followed by precipitation by a more electropositive metal.
Reason: Copper is extracted by hydrometallurgy.

(i) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(ii) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(iii) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(iv) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
(v) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
Answer:

The answer is the option (ii). Copper is extracted by hydrometallurgical process. Suitable solvent like water is used for dissolving salts of metal. They are then reduced by more electropositive element in this process.

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6: Long Answer Type

Question:55

Explain the following:

(i) CO_{2} is a better reducing agent below 710K whereas CO is a better reducing agent above 710K.
(ii) Generally sulphide ores are converted into oxides before reduction.
(iii) Silica is added to the sulphide ore of copper in the reverberatory furnace.
(iv) Carbon and hydrogen are not used as reducing agents at high temperatures.
(v) Vapour phase refining method is used for the purification of Ti.

Answer:

(i) As per the Ellingham diagram, below 710 K
\Delta G_{C,CO_{2}}^{0}<\Delta G_{C,CO}^{0}
Hence, CO_{2} is better reducing agent compared to CO.
At temperature above 710 K, \Delta G_{C,CO_{2}}^{0}<\Delta G_{C,CO}^{0}
Hence CO is better reducing agent.
(ii) Sulphide ores cannot be reduced easily but oxide ores can be esily reduced compared to them, hence sulphide ores are generally converted into oxides before reduction
(iii) In addition to copper sulphide, copper pyrites contain iron sulphide. In reverberatory furnace copper ore is roasted to give oxides.
FeO is removed by adding silica from the matte containing copper sulphide and some iron sulphide.
2FeS+3O_{2}\rightarrow 2FeO+2SO_{2}
FeO+SiO_{2}\rightarrow FeSiO_{3}
(iv) Carbon and hydrogen react with metals at high temperature to form carbides and hydrides respectively hence they are not used as reducing agents.
(v) Ti reacts with iodine to form TiI_{4} which is volatile and decomposes to give Ti at high temperature to give extra pure titanium. That is why vapour phase refining method is used for purification of Ti
Ti + 2I_{2}\overset{530 K}{\rightarrow}TiI_{4}\overset{1800 K}{\rightarrow}Ti+2I_{2}

Also, check NCERT solutions for class 12, other subjects

Introduction of NCERT exemplar Class 12 Chemistry solutions chapter 6 Principles and Processes of isolation of elements

The GENERAL PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES OF ISOLATION OF ELEMENTS is very important as it deals with general principles and process of isolation of elements, which deals with metallurgy and oxidation. The extraction and isolation of metals from ores involve major steps that are included in this chapter.

As per NCERT exemplar Class 12 Chemistry solutions chapter 6, the chapter deals with learning about the different metals, their principles, oxidation-reduction, and refining. There are different topics in this chapter that will help you to understand the concept of metallurgy. The chapter will help the students in understanding the working of different elements related to metallurgy and how it is used.

Major Subtopics in NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6 Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements

  • Occurrence of Metals
  • Concentration of Ores
  • Extraction of Crude Metal from Concentrated Ore
  • Thermodynamic Principles of Metallurgy
  • Electrochemical Principles of Metallurgy
  • Oxidation-Reduction
  • Refining
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NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6 Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements

In Class 12 Chemistry NCERT exemplar solutions chapter 6 the students will get to know about various topics that they should know when it comes to general principles and processes of isolation of elements. The main topics covered in this chapter are definition of minerals, ore, gangue, metallurgy and different important sub topics. Every topic covered in this NCERT exemplar for Class 12 Chemistry chapter 6 solutions is very well equipped with all the answers and also correctly explained.

The entire scientific and technological process used for isolation of the metal from its ores is known as metallurgy. The most abundant metal found in the Earth’s crust is Aluminium. This chapter will help you to understand and gather all the knowledge related to metallurgy and the isolation of elements. Overall, NCERT exemplar Class 12 Chemistry solutions chapter 6 along with just giving information is also fun and interesting for all the students who wish to learn more about isolation of elements. This chapter is helpful for them who wish to study the subject very deeply.

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Solutions

Important Topics in NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry solutions chapter 6 Principles and Processes of isolation of elements

- The importance and use of metallurgy elements and the isolation of elements. There are different factors that are related to each other. Everything related to metallurgy is mentioned in the NCERT exemplar Class 12 Chemistry solutions chapter 6.

- NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry chapter 6 solutions include different aspects of the chapters that will help and control the use of the elements and they can be different based on its use. The chapter will help you to understand all the concepts with a broad perspective and also help you clear your doubts.

- The chapter also provides important information about the different topics that are included in this chapter. It encompasses the relevant and fairly detailed different diagrams that will help the students in getting a better and clear understanding for the students.

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Solutions

Check NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry

Chapter 1

The Solid State

Chapter 2

Solutions

Chapter 3

Electrochemistry

Chapter 4

Chemical Kinetics

Chapter 5

Surface chemistry

Chapter 6

General Principles and Processes of isolation of elements

Chapter 7

The P-block elements

Chapter 8

The d and f block elements

Chapter 9

Coordination compounds

Chapter 10

Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Chapter 11

Alcohols, Phenols, and Ethers

Chapter 12

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

Chapter 13

Amines

Chapter 14

Biomolecules

Chapter 15

Polymers

Chapter 16

Chemistry in Everyday life

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3. 3. Who can benefit from these NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6?

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hello,

Yes you can appear for the compartment paper again since CBSE gives three chances to a candidate to clear his/her exams so you still have two more attempts. However, you can appear for your improvement paper for all subjects but you cannot appear for the ones in which you have failed.

I hope this was helpful!

Good Luck

Hello dear,

If you was not able to clear 1st compartment and now you giving second compartment so YES, you can go for your improvement exam next year but if a student receives an improvement, they are given the opportunity to retake the boards as a private candidate the following year, but there are some requirements. First, the student must pass all of their subjects; if they received a compartment in any subject, they must then pass the compartment exam before being eligible for the improvement.


As you can registered yourself as private candidate for giving your improvement exam of 12 standard CBSE(Central Board of Secondary Education).For that you have to wait for a whole year which is bit difficult for you.


Positive side of waiting for whole year is you have a whole year to preparing yourself for your examination. You have no distraction or something which may causes your failure in the exams. In whole year you have to stay focused on your 12 standard examination for doing well in it. By this you get a highest marks as a comparison of others.


Believe in Yourself! You can make anything happen


All the very best.

Hello Student,

I appreciate your Interest in education. See the improvement is not restricted to one subject or multiple subjects  and  we cannot say if improvement in one subject in one year leads to improvement in more subjects in coming year.

You just need to have a revision of all subjects what you have completed in the school. have a revision and practice of subjects and concepts helps you better.

All the best.

Hi,

You just need to give the exams for the concerned two subjects in which you have got RT. There is no need to give exam for all of your subjects, you can just fill the form for the two subjects only.

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A block of mass 0.50 kg is moving with a speed of 2.00 ms-1 on a smooth surface. It strikes another mass of 1.00 kg and then they move together as a single body. The energy loss during the collision is

Option 1)

0.34\; J

Option 2)

0.16\; J

Option 3)

1.00\; J

Option 4)

0.67\; J

A person trying to lose weight by burning fat lifts a mass of 10 kg upto a height of 1 m 1000 times.  Assume that the potential energy lost each time he lowers the mass is dissipated.  How much fat will he use up considering the work done only when the weight is lifted up ?  Fat supplies 3.8×107 J of energy per kg which is converted to mechanical energy with a 20% efficiency rate.  Take g = 9.8 ms−2 :

Option 1)

2.45×10−3 kg

Option 2)

 6.45×10−3 kg

Option 3)

 9.89×10−3 kg

Option 4)

12.89×10−3 kg

 

An athlete in the olympic games covers a distance of 100 m in 10 s. His kinetic energy can be estimated to be in the range

Option 1)

2,000 \; J - 5,000\; J

Option 2)

200 \, \, J - 500 \, \, J

Option 3)

2\times 10^{5}J-3\times 10^{5}J

Option 4)

20,000 \, \, J - 50,000 \, \, J

A particle is projected at 600   to the horizontal with a kinetic energy K. The kinetic energy at the highest point

Option 1)

K/2\,

Option 2)

\; K\;

Option 3)

zero\;

Option 4)

K/4

In the reaction,

2Al_{(s)}+6HCL_{(aq)}\rightarrow 2Al^{3+}\, _{(aq)}+6Cl^{-}\, _{(aq)}+3H_{2(g)}

Option 1)

11.2\, L\, H_{2(g)}  at STP  is produced for every mole HCL_{(aq)}  consumed

Option 2)

6L\, HCl_{(aq)}  is consumed for ever 3L\, H_{2(g)}      produced

Option 3)

33.6 L\, H_{2(g)} is produced regardless of temperature and pressure for every mole Al that reacts

Option 4)

67.2\, L\, H_{2(g)} at STP is produced for every mole Al that reacts .

How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg_{3}(PO_{4})_{2} will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms?

Option 1)

0.02

Option 2)

3.125 × 10-2

Option 3)

1.25 × 10-2

Option 4)

2.5 × 10-2

If we consider that 1/6, in place of 1/12, mass of carbon atom is taken to be the relative atomic mass unit, the mass of one mole of a substance will

Option 1)

decrease twice

Option 2)

increase two fold

Option 3)

remain unchanged

Option 4)

be a function of the molecular mass of the substance.

With increase of temperature, which of these changes?

Option 1)

Molality

Option 2)

Weight fraction of solute

Option 3)

Fraction of solute present in water

Option 4)

Mole fraction.

Number of atoms in 558.5 gram Fe (at. wt.of Fe = 55.85 g mol-1) is

Option 1)

twice that in 60 g carbon

Option 2)

6.023 × 1022

Option 3)

half that in 8 g He

Option 4)

558.5 × 6.023 × 1023

A pulley of radius 2 m is rotated about its axis by a force F = (20t - 5t2) newton (where t is measured in seconds) applied tangentially. If the moment of inertia of the pulley about its axis of rotation is 10 kg m2 , the number of rotations made by the pulley before its direction of motion if reversed, is

Option 1)

less than 3

Option 2)

more than 3 but less than 6

Option 3)

more than 6 but less than 9

Option 4)

more than 9

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Orthotists and Prosthetists are professionals who provide aid to patients with disabilities. They fix them to artificial limbs (prosthetics) and help them to regain stability. There are times when people lose their limbs in an accident. In some other occasions, they are born without a limb or orthopaedic impairment. Orthotists and prosthetists play a crucial role in their lives with fixing them to assistive devices and provide mobility.

6 Jobs Available
Pathologist

A career in pathology in India is filled with several responsibilities as it is a medical branch and affects human lives. The demand for pathologists has been increasing over the past few years as people are getting more aware of different diseases. Not only that, but an increase in population and lifestyle changes have also contributed to the increase in a pathologist’s demand. The pathology careers provide an extremely huge number of opportunities and if you want to be a part of the medical field you can consider being a pathologist. If you want to know more about a career in pathology in India then continue reading this article.

5 Jobs Available
Veterinary Doctor
5 Jobs Available
Speech Therapist
4 Jobs Available
Gynaecologist

Gynaecology can be defined as the study of the female body. The job outlook for gynaecology is excellent since there is evergreen demand for one because of their responsibility of dealing with not only women’s health but also fertility and pregnancy issues. Although most women prefer to have a women obstetrician gynaecologist as their doctor, men also explore a career as a gynaecologist and there are ample amounts of male doctors in the field who are gynaecologists and aid women during delivery and childbirth. 

4 Jobs Available
Audiologist

The audiologist career involves audiology professionals who are responsible to treat hearing loss and proactively preventing the relevant damage. Individuals who opt for a career as an audiologist use various testing strategies with the aim to determine if someone has a normal sensitivity to sounds or not. After the identification of hearing loss, a hearing doctor is required to determine which sections of the hearing are affected, to what extent they are affected, and where the wound causing the hearing loss is found. As soon as the hearing loss is identified, the patients are provided with recommendations for interventions and rehabilitation such as hearing aids, cochlear implants, and appropriate medical referrals. While audiology is a branch of science that studies and researches hearing, balance, and related disorders.

3 Jobs Available
Oncologist

An oncologist is a specialised doctor responsible for providing medical care to patients diagnosed with cancer. He or she uses several therapies to control the cancer and its effect on the human body such as chemotherapy, immunotherapy, radiation therapy and biopsy. An oncologist designs a treatment plan based on a pathology report after diagnosing the type of cancer and where it is spreading inside the body.

3 Jobs Available
Anatomist

Are you searching for an ‘Anatomist job description’? An Anatomist is a research professional who applies the laws of biological science to determine the ability of bodies of various living organisms including animals and humans to regenerate the damaged or destroyed organs. If you want to know what does an anatomist do, then read the entire article, where we will answer all your questions.

2 Jobs Available
Actor

For an individual who opts for a career as an actor, the primary responsibility is to completely speak to the character he or she is playing and to persuade the crowd that the character is genuine by connecting with them and bringing them into the story. This applies to significant roles and littler parts, as all roles join to make an effective creation. Here in this article, we will discuss how to become an actor in India, actor exams, actor salary in India, and actor jobs. 

4 Jobs Available
Acrobat

Individuals who opt for a career as acrobats create and direct original routines for themselves, in addition to developing interpretations of existing routines. The work of circus acrobats can be seen in a variety of performance settings, including circus, reality shows, sports events like the Olympics, movies and commercials. Individuals who opt for a career as acrobats must be prepared to face rejections and intermittent periods of work. The creativity of acrobats may extend to other aspects of the performance. For example, acrobats in the circus may work with gym trainers, celebrities or collaborate with other professionals to enhance such performance elements as costume and or maybe at the teaching end of the career.

3 Jobs Available
Video Game Designer

Career as a video game designer is filled with excitement as well as responsibilities. A video game designer is someone who is involved in the process of creating a game from day one. He or she is responsible for fulfilling duties like designing the character of the game, the several levels involved, plot, art and similar other elements. Individuals who opt for a career as a video game designer may also write the codes for the game using different programming languages.

Depending on the video game designer job description and experience they may also have to lead a team and do the early testing of the game in order to suggest changes and find loopholes.

3 Jobs Available
Radio Jockey

Radio Jockey is an exciting, promising career and a great challenge for music lovers. If you are really interested in a career as radio jockey, then it is very important for an RJ to have an automatic, fun, and friendly personality. If you want to get a job done in this field, a strong command of the language and a good voice are always good things. Apart from this, in order to be a good radio jockey, you will also listen to good radio jockeys so that you can understand their style and later make your own by practicing.

A career as radio jockey has a lot to offer to deserving candidates. If you want to know more about a career as radio jockey, and how to become a radio jockey then continue reading the article.

3 Jobs Available
Choreographer

The word “choreography" actually comes from Greek words that mean “dance writing." Individuals who opt for a career as a choreographer create and direct original dances, in addition to developing interpretations of existing dances. A Choreographer dances and utilises his or her creativity in other aspects of dance performance. For example, he or she may work with the music director to select music or collaborate with other famous choreographers to enhance such performance elements as lighting, costume and set design.

2 Jobs Available
Social Media Manager

A career as social media manager involves implementing the company’s or brand’s marketing plan across all social media channels. Social media managers help in building or improving a brand’s or a company’s website traffic, build brand awareness, create and implement marketing and brand strategy. Social media managers are key to important social communication as well.

2 Jobs Available
Photographer

Photography is considered both a science and an art, an artistic means of expression in which the camera replaces the pen. In a career as a photographer, an individual is hired to capture the moments of public and private events, such as press conferences or weddings, or may also work inside a studio, where people go to get their picture clicked. Photography is divided into many streams each generating numerous career opportunities in photography. With the boom in advertising, media, and the fashion industry, photography has emerged as a lucrative and thrilling career option for many Indian youths.

2 Jobs Available
Producer

An individual who is pursuing a career as a producer is responsible for managing the business aspects of production. They are involved in each aspect of production from its inception to deception. Famous movie producers review the script, recommend changes and visualise the story. 

They are responsible for overseeing the finance involved in the project and distributing the film for broadcasting on various platforms. A career as a producer is quite fulfilling as well as exhaustive in terms of playing different roles in order for a production to be successful. Famous movie producers are responsible for hiring creative and technical personnel on contract basis.

2 Jobs Available
Copy Writer

In a career as a copywriter, one has to consult with the client and understand the brief well. A career as a copywriter has a lot to offer to deserving candidates. Several new mediums of advertising are opening therefore making it a lucrative career choice. Students can pursue various copywriter courses such as Journalism, Advertising, Marketing Management. Here, we have discussed how to become a freelance copywriter, copywriter career path, how to become a copywriter in India, and copywriting career outlook. 

5 Jobs Available
Vlogger

In a career as a vlogger, one generally works for himself or herself. However, once an individual has gained viewership there are several brands and companies that approach them for paid collaboration. It is one of those fields where an individual can earn well while following his or her passion. 

Ever since internet costs got reduced the viewership for these types of content has increased on a large scale. Therefore, a career as a vlogger has a lot to offer. If you want to know more about the Vlogger eligibility, roles and responsibilities then continue reading the article. 

3 Jobs Available
Publisher

For publishing books, newspapers, magazines and digital material, editorial and commercial strategies are set by publishers. Individuals in publishing career paths make choices about the markets their businesses will reach and the type of content that their audience will be served. Individuals in book publisher careers collaborate with editorial staff, designers, authors, and freelance contributors who develop and manage the creation of content.

3 Jobs Available
Journalist

Careers in journalism are filled with excitement as well as responsibilities. One cannot afford to miss out on the details. As it is the small details that provide insights into a story. Depending on those insights a journalist goes about writing a news article. A journalism career can be stressful at times but if you are someone who is passionate about it then it is the right choice for you. If you want to know more about the media field and journalist career then continue reading this article.

3 Jobs Available
Editor

Individuals in the editor career path is an unsung hero of the news industry who polishes the language of the news stories provided by stringers, reporters, copywriters and content writers and also news agencies. Individuals who opt for a career as an editor make it more persuasive, concise and clear for readers. In this article, we will discuss the details of the editor's career path such as how to become an editor in India, editor salary in India and editor skills and qualities.

3 Jobs Available
Reporter

Individuals who opt for a career as a reporter may often be at work on national holidays and festivities. He or she pitches various story ideas and covers news stories in risky situations. Students can pursue a BMC (Bachelor of Mass Communication), B.M.M. (Bachelor of Mass Media), or MAJMC (MA in Journalism and Mass Communication) to become a reporter. While we sit at home reporters travel to locations to collect information that carries a news value.  

2 Jobs Available
Corporate Executive

Are you searching for a Corporate Executive job description? A Corporate Executive role comes with administrative duties. He or she provides support to the leadership of the organisation. A Corporate Executive fulfils the business purpose and ensures its financial stability. In this article, we are going to discuss how to become corporate executive.

2 Jobs Available
Multimedia Specialist

A multimedia specialist is a media professional who creates, audio, videos, graphic image files, computer animations for multimedia applications. He or she is responsible for planning, producing, and maintaining websites and applications. 

2 Jobs Available
Welding Engineer

Welding Engineer Job Description: A Welding Engineer work involves managing welding projects and supervising welding teams. He or she is responsible for reviewing welding procedures, processes and documentation. A career as Welding Engineer involves conducting failure analyses and causes on welding issues. 

5 Jobs Available
QA Manager
4 Jobs Available
Quality Controller

A quality controller plays a crucial role in an organisation. He or she is responsible for performing quality checks on manufactured products. He or she identifies the defects in a product and rejects the product. 

A quality controller records detailed information about products with defects and sends it to the supervisor or plant manager to take necessary actions to improve the production process.

3 Jobs Available
Production Manager
3 Jobs Available
Product Manager

A Product Manager is a professional responsible for product planning and marketing. He or she manages the product throughout the Product Life Cycle, gathering and prioritising the product. A product manager job description includes defining the product vision and working closely with team members of other departments to deliver winning products.  

3 Jobs Available
QA Lead

A QA Lead is in charge of the QA Team. The role of QA Lead comes with the responsibility of assessing services and products in order to determine that he or she meets the quality standards. He or she develops, implements and manages test plans. 

2 Jobs Available
Structural Engineer

A Structural Engineer designs buildings, bridges, and other related structures. He or she analyzes the structures and makes sure the structures are strong enough to be used by the people. A career as a Structural Engineer requires working in the construction process. It comes under the civil engineering discipline. A Structure Engineer creates structural models with the help of computer-aided design software. 

2 Jobs Available
Process Development Engineer

The Process Development Engineers design, implement, manufacture, mine, and other production systems using technical knowledge and expertise in the industry. They use computer modeling software to test technologies and machinery. An individual who is opting career as Process Development Engineer is responsible for developing cost-effective and efficient processes. They also monitor the production process and ensure it functions smoothly and efficiently.

2 Jobs Available
QA Manager
4 Jobs Available
AWS Solution Architect

An AWS Solution Architect is someone who specializes in developing and implementing cloud computing systems. He or she has a good understanding of the various aspects of cloud computing and can confidently deploy and manage their systems. He or she troubleshoots the issues and evaluates the risk from the third party. 

4 Jobs Available
Azure Administrator

An Azure Administrator is a professional responsible for implementing, monitoring, and maintaining Azure Solutions. He or she manages cloud infrastructure service instances and various cloud servers as well as sets up public and private cloud systems. 

4 Jobs Available
Computer Programmer

Careers in computer programming primarily refer to the systematic act of writing code and moreover include wider computer science areas. The word 'programmer' or 'coder' has entered into practice with the growing number of newly self-taught tech enthusiasts. Computer programming careers involve the use of designs created by software developers and engineers and transforming them into commands that can be implemented by computers. These commands result in regular usage of social media sites, word-processing applications and browsers.

3 Jobs Available
Product Manager

A Product Manager is a professional responsible for product planning and marketing. He or she manages the product throughout the Product Life Cycle, gathering and prioritising the product. A product manager job description includes defining the product vision and working closely with team members of other departments to deliver winning products.  

3 Jobs Available
Information Security Manager

Individuals in the information security manager career path involves in overseeing and controlling all aspects of computer security. The IT security manager job description includes planning and carrying out security measures to protect the business data and information from corruption, theft, unauthorised access, and deliberate attack 

3 Jobs Available
ITSM Manager
3 Jobs Available
Automation Test Engineer

An Automation Test Engineer job involves executing automated test scripts. He or she identifies the project’s problems and troubleshoots them. The role involves documenting the defect using management tools. He or she works with the application team in order to resolve any issues arising during the testing process. 

2 Jobs Available
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