Careers360 Logo
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

Edited By Irshad Anwar | Updated on Mar 24, 2025 11:08 AM IST | #CBSE Class 12th
Upcoming Event
CBSE Class 12th  Exam Date : 01 Apr' 2025 - 01 Apr' 2025

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 9 – Biotechnology: Principles and Processes gives detailed explanations of all major concepts. The chapter also introduces important techniques such as DNA isolation, PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction), gene cloning, and bioreactors, enabling students to comprehend the basic applications of biotechnology. Your search is over because we have updated answers to every chapter of the NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology, which are updated to the CBSE Syllabus 2025–26. According to the CBSE Syllabus 2025-26, this chapter has been renumbered as Chapter 9.

This Story also Contains
  1. NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Biotechnology: Principles And Processes PDF Download
  2. NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes - Solved Exercise Questions
  3. NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Biotechnology Principles and Processes Importance
  4. NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology- Chapter-wise
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Biotechnology Principles and Processes
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

Biotechnology is a field that deals with the combination of biology and technology. The techniques of using live organisms or enzymes taken from organisms to produce products and processes that are useful to humans For example, making curd, bread, or wine are all microbe-mediated processes. It could also be thought of as a form of biotechnology. NCERT Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 9 will provide you with all the questions and answers mentioned in this chapter.

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Biotechnology: Principles And Processes PDF Download

After going through the solutions of Biotechnology: Principles and Processes NCERT, you must be able to understand all the answers to the following questions:

Download PDF


Also Read,

NCERT Exemplar for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes - Solved Exercise Questions

Q1. Can you list 10 recombinant proteins which are used in medical practice? Find out where they are used as therapeutics (use the internet).

Answer:

Recombinant proteins are proteins produced as a result of recombinant DNA technology. In this technology, there is the transfer of some specific gene from one organism to another by using molecular tools such as biological vectors, restriction enzymes etc. Some of the proteins produced through RDT and are being used for therapeutic uses are as follows:

S.No
Name of the recombinant protein
Therapeutic use of the recombinant protein
1.
DNAase I
To treat cystic fibrosis
2.
Antithrombin III
To prevent the formation of blood clot
3.
Insulin
To treat type I diabetes mellitus
4.
Interferon α
Used for chronic hepatitis C
5.
Interferon AZA
Used for herpes and virus enteritis
6.
Coagulation factor VIII
To treat haemophilia A
7.
Coagulation factor IX
To treat haemophilia B
8.
Interferon B
To treat multiple sclerosis
9.
Human growth hormone recombinant
To promote growth in humans
10.
Tissue plasminogen activator
To treat the myocardial infection


Q2. Make a chart (with diagrammatic representation) showing a restriction enzyme, the substrate DNA on which it acts, the site at which it cuts DNA and the product it produces

Answer:

The following chart shows the action of the restriction enzyme EcoRI, the substrate DNA on which it acts and the site where it cuts

Action of Restriction enzyme


Q3. What would be the molar concentration of human DNA in a human cell? Consult your teacher.

Answer:

The molar concentration of DNA in a human cell will be total no. of chromosomes multiplied by 6.023×1023

Hence, the molar concentration of DNA in each diploid cell in humans is 46×6.023×1023=2.77×1023 moles

Q4. Do eukaryotic cells have restriction endonucleases? Justify your answer.

Answer:

No, eukaryotic cells do not possess restriction enzymes. All the restriction endonucleases have been developed and isolated from different strains of bacteria. The bacteria possess these restriction endonucleases as a defence mechanism to restrict the growth of viruses. Their own DNA remain safe from these enzymes because it is methylated. The eukaryotic cell has RNA interference as a defence mechanism against foreign DNA. Thus, eukaryotic cells do not have restriction endonucleases.


Q5. Besides better aeration and mixing properties, what other advantages do stirred tank bioreactors have over shake flasks?

Answer:

The advantages of stirred tank bioreactors over shake flasks are as follows:

1. Stirred tank bioreactors are utilised for large-scale production of biotechnological products, unlike the shake flask method which is used for small-scale production of products.

2. In stirred tank bioreactors, a small sample can be taken out for testing.

3. Stirred tank bioreactors have foam breakers to control the foam.

4. Stirred tank bioreactors have temperature and pH control systems.

Q6. Collect 5 examples of palindromic DNA sequences by consulting your teacher. Better try to create a palindromic sequence by following the base-pair rule

Answer:

Palindromic sequences in the DNA molecule refer to groups of bases forming the same sequence when read either backwardly or forwardly. The recognition sites of restriction endonucleases are palindromic sequences. Five examples of palindromic DN sequences are given below

1. ACTAGT/TGATCA

2. AAGCTT/TTCGAA

3. GGATCC/CCTAGG

4. AGGCCT/TCCGGA

5. ACGCGT/TGCGCA


Q7. Can you recall meiosis and indicate at what stage a recombinant DNA is made?

Answer:

In meiosis, during the pachytene stage of Prophase I, crossing-over takes place and recombinant DNA is formed by combining portions of male and female DNA.

Q8. Can you think and answer how a reporter enzyme can be used to monitor the transformation of host cells by foreign DNA in addition to a selectable marker?

Answer:

In recombinant DNA technology, the selection of transformed and non-transformed cells can be done using reporter genes that encode reporter enzymes. During the RDT experiment, the foreign gene is joined with a reporter gene. The reporter gene should be such that it produces a visible expression. For example, the Lac Z gene which codes for the enzyme beta-galactosidase is used as a reporter gene. The activity of this gene is not found in transformed cells as the product formed by its catalysation is not formed in transformed cells and bacterial colonies appear white. In non-transformed cells, this gene shows its activity and the catalysed product is formed, as a result of this, bacterial colonies appear blue. Thus, a reporter enzyme can be used to monitor the transformation of host cells by foreign DNA in addition to a selectable marker.

Q9. Describe briefly the following:

(a) Origin of replication

Answer:

Origin of replication- This refers to the DNA sequence, from where replication of DNA starts. By linking a DNA sequence with the origin of replication, it can be allowed to replicate in the host cells. Origin of replication also controls the copy number of linked DNA sequences.

(b) Bioreactor

Answer:

Bioreactors - These are large vessels (100-1000 litres) that are used for large-scale production of biotechnological products such as proteins, enzymes etc. from raw materials. In a bioreactor, optimum conditions such as temperature, pH, vitamins, oxygen, salts etc. are maintained. Stirred bioreactors are the most commonly used bioreactors. Stirred bioreactors can be simply stirred tank bioreactors or sparged tank bioreactors.


(c) Downstream processing

Answer:

Downstream processing- The process of separation and purification of biotechnological products is called downstream processing. The processes in downstream processing vary depending on the quality of the product. Before the release of the product, it undergoes clinical trials and quality control testing.


Q10. Explain briefly : (a) PCR

Answer:

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)- The molecular technique to amplify a gene and obtain its several copies is referred to as PCR. The process of PCR has certain requirements i.e. a thermostable enzyme called Taq polymerase ( obtained from Thermus aquaticus ), primers ( short stretches of DNA ), dNTPs, a template strand etc. The process of PCR takes place in three steps.

1. Denaturation- The double-stranded DNA helix is opened up by breaking their H-bonds at high temperatures.

2. Annealing- The primers are allowed to hybridise to complementary regions of DNA. This step takes place at 45-55 C temperature.

3. Extension- The primers are extended with the help of the Taq polymerase enzyme and the cycle is repeated several times to obtain the desired number of copies.

(b) Restriction enzymes and DNA

Answer:

Restriction enzymes and DNA- Restriction enzymes are those enzymes which cut DNA at particular places. The restriction enzyme first scans the DNA template and looks for its recognition site. Once it finds the recognition site, it binds at that region of DNA and cuts each of the two strands in its sugar-phosphate backbone. The sites at which restriction enzymes cut DNA are called recognition sites of DNA. These are palindromic sequences i.e. they read similarly from the backward and forward direction.

(c) Chitinase

Answer:

Chitinase - The enzyme that catalyses the breakdown of chitin polysaccharide which is usually found in the cell wall of fungi. Chitinase is mainly used during DNA isolation from fungi.


Q11. Discuss with your teacher and find out how to distinguish between

(a) Plasmid DNA and Chromosomal DNA

Answer:

The differences between plasmid DNA and chromosomal DNA are as follows:

Plasmid DNA
Chromosomal DNA
Circular, extra-chromosomal DNA which is capable of self-replication and is found in bacteria is called plasmid DNA.
The entire DNA (excluding extrachromosomal DNA) present in the cell constitutes chromosomal DNA
It is found only in bacteria
It is found in both bacteria and other eukaryotic cells.

(b) RNA and DNA

Answer:

The differences between RNA and DNA are as follows:

RNA
DNA
RNA contains ribose sugar
DNA contains deoxyribose sugar
In RNA, adenine and uracil are found as pyrimidines
In DNA, adenine and uracil are found as pyrimidines
It has catalytic properties and is less stable than DNA
DNA is non-catalytic and is more stable than RNA

(c) Exonuclease and Endonuclease

Answer:

The differences between exonuclease and endonuclease are as follows:

Exonuclease
Endonuclease
These are nucleases (enzymes) that cut DNA from its ends.
These are nucleases that cut DNA from internal sites on DNA


NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Solutions

NEET/JEE Coaching Scholarship

Get up to 90% Scholarship on Offline NEET/JEE coaching from top Institutes

JEE Main Important Mathematics Formulas

As per latest 2024 syllabus. Maths formulas, equations, & theorems of class 11 & 12th chapters

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 9 – Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 9 – Biotechnology: Principles and Processes is covered under Unit – Biotechnology and is included in the CBSE Syllabus for the session 2022-23. Biotechnology Principles and Processes NCERT solutions help students understand concepts clearly and easily. The Biotechnology Unit has two chapters, and they are

  • Biotechnology: Principles and Processes (Biology Chapter 11 Class 12)
  • Biotechnology and its applications
NEET Highest Scoring Chapters & Topics
Most Scoring concepts For NEET (Based On Previous Year Analysis)
Download EBook

Approximately 10 marks are distributed evenly between the two chapters in this unit as a whole. On this page, we have covered Biotechnology Class 12 NCERT Solutions for Chapter 9. The important topics and subtopics are also mentioned for better preparation in Class 12 Biotechnology Principles and Processes NCERT Solutions.

In solutions for the chapter Biotechnology NCERT Principles and Processes and marketing of products and processes using live organisms, cells or enzymes. Modern biotechnology using genetically modified organisms was made possible only when man learned to alter the chemistry of DNA and construct recombinant DNA. As per Chapter 9 Biology Class 12 NCERT Solutions, this process of combination is called recombinant DNA technology or genetic engineering. This process includes the use of these things: restriction endonucleases, DNA ligase, appropriate plasmid or viral vectors to isolate the foreign DNA into the host organisms as given in Class 12 Biology Chapter 9 NCERT Solutions. And for large-scale production bioreactors are being used. The NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 9 can be used by students as a quick reference to understand difficult concepts.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Biotechnology Principles and Processes Importance

To study for the board exams, students can use these NCERT Solutions for Class 12. Additionally, these biotechnology principles and processes NCERT solutions are available for free download in PDF format. It provides answers per the most recent CBSE Syllabus (2025–26) and the NCERT Textbook. Chapter 11 NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology discusses Biotechnology in detail. In biotechnology NCERT, so many other processes/techniques are also included in the process of biotechnology NCERT.

For example, in vitro fertilisation leading to a ‘test-tube baby, synthesizing a gene and using it, developing a DNA vaccine, or correcting a defective gene are all part of biotechnology. Solutions of biotechnology NCERT will make learning easier for you. In Biotechnology Principles and Processes NCERT PDF, you will also study the different processes in Biotechnology NCERT Solutions. If you are looking for the answers to any other class from 6 to 12 then NCERT solutions are there for you. In case you have any doubts or queries about solving these questions, the Biotechnology Class 12 NCERT PDF will help you do so.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12- Subject-wise


Important Subtopics of NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Biotechnology Principles and Processes:

Some of the important subtopics of Class 12th Biotechnology: Principles And Processes are discussed below in the table:

Section

Topic

9.1

Principles of Biotechnology

9.2

Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

9.2.1

Restriction Enzymes

9.2.2

Cloning Vectors

9.2.3

Competent Host (For Transformation with Recombinant DNA)

9.3

Processes of Recombinant DNA Technology

9.3.1

Isolation of the Genetic Material (DNA)

9.3.2

Cutting of DNA at Specific Locations

9.3.3

Amplification of Gene of Interest using PCR

9.3.4

Insertion of Recombinant DNA into the Host Cell/Organism

9.3.5

Obtaining the Foreign Gene Product

9.3.6

Downstream Processing


Also Check NCERT Books and NCERT Syllabus here:

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology- Chapter-wise

Below mentioned are the Chapterwise solutions:

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 1 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 Human Reproduction

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Reproductive Health

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Molecular basis of inheritance

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Evolution

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Human health and disease

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 Microbes in Human Welfare

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 9 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 10 Biotechnology and its Applications

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Organisms and Populations

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 Ecosystem

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 Biodiversity and Conservation

Biotechnology has transformed medicine, agriculture, and industry by offering creative solutions through genetic engineering and molecular biology methods. The concepts and processes outlined in this chapter serve as the basis for developments such as gene therapy, genetically modified organisms (GMOs), and drug manufacture. It is important to know these concepts to tap the power of biotechnology to solve worldwide problems, such as food availability and disease treatment. With advances in research, biotechnology is destined to be more crucial in defining the future of science and technology.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. Why you should use NCERT solutions for class 12 biology chapter 11 biotechnology principles and processes?

Class 12 Biology Chapter 11: 

  • Solutions for biotechnology ncert: principles and processes will help you to clear your base as NCERT is the base of your learning.   
  • You will get all the answers to this chapter and the biotechnology class 12 ncert pdf will help you to score good marks in the exam.   
  • Biotechnology principles and processes ncert pdf will also help you with competitive exams like NEET.   
  • NCERT solutions for class 12 biology chapter 11 biotechnology principles and processes will also help you in your 12th board exam.   
  • Biotechnology NCERT will also boost your knowledge.  
2. How to download solutions of biotechnology ncert for class 12 Biology chapter 11 pdf?

To download biotechnology principles and processes ncert pdf, students can use the online webpage to pdf converter tools. To Score Well in the examination, follow the NCERT syllabus and exercise given in the NCERT Book. To practice more problems, students can refer to the NCERT exemplar.

3. What are the important topics covered in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11?

The important topics of NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 are

  • Biotechnology: Principles and Processes
  • Biotechnology and its applications
  • Principles of Biotechnology
  • Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  • Processes of Recombinant DNA Technology.
4. Are NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 enough for board exam preparation?

Yes, NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 provide solutions for all questions given in NCERT Textbook Biology for Class 12. The majority of the board exam questions are taken from these exercises. Students who master these ideas will perform well in their final exams.

5. What are multiple alleles and co-dominance?

Multiple alleles are the occurrence of more than two alternative forms of a gene at one locus, for example, the ABO blood group system in human beings. Co-dominance is when both alleles in a heterozygous state are expressed to the full without one being dominant to the other, for example, in the AB blood group where A and B alleles are equally expressed.

6. Explain the chromosomal theory of inheritance.

Sutton and Boveri developed the Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance, which states that genes have positions on chromosomes, and these are passed on by offspring to parents. It states that chromosomes assort and segregate independently of one another during gamete production by Mendel's laws. This theory provided inheritance with a physical basis, correlating gene transmission with chromosome activity during meiosis.

7. How does sex determination occur in humans?

In humans, sex determination is controlled by the XY chromosome system. Males have XY chromosomes, while females have XX chromosomes. The sperm determines the sex of the offspring—if it carries an X chromosome, a female (XX) is born; if it carries a Y chromosome, a male (XY) is born. This process occurs during fertilization.

Articles

Explore Top Universities Across Globe

University of Essex, Colchester
 Wivenhoe Park Colchester CO4 3SQ
University College London, London
 Gower Street, London, WC1E 6BT
The University of Edinburgh, Edinburgh
 Old College, South Bridge, Edinburgh, Post Code EH8 9YL
University of Bristol, Bristol
 Beacon House, Queens Road, Bristol, BS8 1QU
University of Nottingham, Nottingham
 University Park, Nottingham NG7 2RD

Questions related to CBSE Class 12th

Have a question related to CBSE Class 12th ?

Changing from the CBSE board to the Odisha CHSE in Class 12 is generally difficult and often not ideal due to differences in syllabi and examination structures. Most boards, including Odisha CHSE , do not recommend switching in the final year of schooling. It is crucial to consult both CBSE and Odisha CHSE authorities for specific policies, but making such a change earlier is advisable to prevent academic complications.

Hello there! Thanks for reaching out to us at Careers360.

Ah, you're looking for CBSE quarterly question papers for mathematics, right? Those can be super helpful for exam prep.

Unfortunately, CBSE doesn't officially release quarterly papers - they mainly put out sample papers and previous years' board exam papers. But don't worry, there are still some good options to help you practice!

Have you checked out the CBSE sample papers on their official website? Those are usually pretty close to the actual exam format. You could also look into previous years' board exam papers - they're great for getting a feel for the types of questions that might come up.

If you're after more practice material, some textbook publishers release their own mock papers which can be useful too.

Let me know if you need any other tips for your math prep. Good luck with your studies!

It's understandable to feel disheartened after facing a compartment exam, especially when you've invested significant effort. However, it's important to remember that setbacks are a part of life, and they can be opportunities for growth.

Possible steps:

  1. Re-evaluate Your Study Strategies:

    • Identify Weak Areas: Pinpoint the specific topics or concepts that caused difficulties.
    • Seek Clarification: Reach out to teachers, tutors, or online resources for additional explanations.
    • Practice Regularly: Consistent practice is key to mastering chemistry.
  2. Consider Professional Help:

    • Tutoring: A tutor can provide personalized guidance and support.
    • Counseling: If you're feeling overwhelmed or unsure about your path, counseling can help.
  3. Explore Alternative Options:

    • Retake the Exam: If you're confident in your ability to improve, consider retaking the chemistry compartment exam.
    • Change Course: If you're not interested in pursuing chemistry further, explore other academic options that align with your interests.
  4. Focus on NEET 2025 Preparation:

    • Stay Dedicated: Continue your NEET preparation with renewed determination.
    • Utilize Resources: Make use of study materials, online courses, and mock tests.
  5. Seek Support:

    • Talk to Friends and Family: Sharing your feelings can provide comfort and encouragement.
    • Join Study Groups: Collaborating with peers can create a supportive learning environment.

Remember: This is a temporary setback. With the right approach and perseverance, you can overcome this challenge and achieve your goals.

I hope this information helps you.







Hi,

Qualifications:
Age: As of the last registration date, you must be between the ages of 16 and 40.
Qualification: You must have graduated from an accredited board or at least passed the tenth grade. Higher qualifications are also accepted, such as a diploma, postgraduate degree, graduation, or 11th or 12th grade.
How to Apply:
Get the Medhavi app by visiting the Google Play Store.
Register: In the app, create an account.
Examine Notification: Examine the comprehensive notification on the scholarship examination.
Sign up to Take the Test: Finish the app's registration process.
Examine: The Medhavi app allows you to take the exam from the comfort of your home.
Get Results: In just two days, the results are made public.
Verification of Documents: Provide the required paperwork and bank account information for validation.
Get Scholarship: Following a successful verification process, the scholarship will be given. You need to have at least passed the 10th grade/matriculation scholarship amount will be transferred directly to your bank account.

Scholarship Details:

Type A: For candidates scoring 60% or above in the exam.

Type B: For candidates scoring between 50% and 60%.

Type C: For candidates scoring between 40% and 50%.

Cash Scholarship:

Scholarships can range from Rs. 2,000 to Rs. 18,000 per month, depending on the marks obtained and the type of scholarship exam (SAKSHAM, SWABHIMAN, SAMADHAN, etc.).

Since you already have a 12th grade qualification with 84%, you meet the qualification criteria and are eligible to apply for the Medhavi Scholarship exam. Make sure to prepare well for the exam to maximize your chances of receiving a higher scholarship.

Hope you find this useful!

hello mahima,

If you have uploaded screenshot of your 12th board result taken from CBSE official website,there won,t be a problem with that.If the screenshot that you have uploaded is clear and legible. It should display your name, roll number, marks obtained, and any other relevant details in a readable forma.ALSO, the screenshot clearly show it is from the official CBSE results portal.

hope this helps.

View All

A block of mass 0.50 kg is moving with a speed of 2.00 ms-1 on a smooth surface. It strikes another mass of 1.00 kg and then they move together as a single body. The energy loss during the collision is

Option 1)

0.34\; J

Option 2)

0.16\; J

Option 3)

1.00\; J

Option 4)

0.67\; J

A person trying to lose weight by burning fat lifts a mass of 10 kg upto a height of 1 m 1000 times.  Assume that the potential energy lost each time he lowers the mass is dissipated.  How much fat will he use up considering the work done only when the weight is lifted up ?  Fat supplies 3.8×107 J of energy per kg which is converted to mechanical energy with a 20% efficiency rate.  Take g = 9.8 ms−2 :

Option 1)

2.45×10−3 kg

Option 2)

 6.45×10−3 kg

Option 3)

 9.89×10−3 kg

Option 4)

12.89×10−3 kg

 

An athlete in the olympic games covers a distance of 100 m in 10 s. His kinetic energy can be estimated to be in the range

Option 1)

2,000 \; J - 5,000\; J

Option 2)

200 \, \, J - 500 \, \, J

Option 3)

2\times 10^{5}J-3\times 10^{5}J

Option 4)

20,000 \, \, J - 50,000 \, \, J

A particle is projected at 600   to the horizontal with a kinetic energy K. The kinetic energy at the highest point

Option 1)

K/2\,

Option 2)

\; K\;

Option 3)

zero\;

Option 4)

K/4

In the reaction,

2Al_{(s)}+6HCL_{(aq)}\rightarrow 2Al^{3+}\, _{(aq)}+6Cl^{-}\, _{(aq)}+3H_{2(g)}

Option 1)

11.2\, L\, H_{2(g)}  at STP  is produced for every mole HCL_{(aq)}  consumed

Option 2)

6L\, HCl_{(aq)}  is consumed for ever 3L\, H_{2(g)}      produced

Option 3)

33.6 L\, H_{2(g)} is produced regardless of temperature and pressure for every mole Al that reacts

Option 4)

67.2\, L\, H_{2(g)} at STP is produced for every mole Al that reacts .

How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg_{3}(PO_{4})_{2} will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms?

Option 1)

0.02

Option 2)

3.125 × 10-2

Option 3)

1.25 × 10-2

Option 4)

2.5 × 10-2

If we consider that 1/6, in place of 1/12, mass of carbon atom is taken to be the relative atomic mass unit, the mass of one mole of a substance will

Option 1)

decrease twice

Option 2)

increase two fold

Option 3)

remain unchanged

Option 4)

be a function of the molecular mass of the substance.

With increase of temperature, which of these changes?

Option 1)

Molality

Option 2)

Weight fraction of solute

Option 3)

Fraction of solute present in water

Option 4)

Mole fraction.

Number of atoms in 558.5 gram Fe (at. wt.of Fe = 55.85 g mol-1) is

Option 1)

twice that in 60 g carbon

Option 2)

6.023 × 1022

Option 3)

half that in 8 g He

Option 4)

558.5 × 6.023 × 1023

A pulley of radius 2 m is rotated about its axis by a force F = (20t - 5t2) newton (where t is measured in seconds) applied tangentially. If the moment of inertia of the pulley about its axis of rotation is 10 kg m2 , the number of rotations made by the pulley before its direction of motion if reversed, is

Option 1)

less than 3

Option 2)

more than 3 but less than 6

Option 3)

more than 6 but less than 9

Option 4)

more than 9

Back to top