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Class 12 exams hold great importance in a student’s life since it is a transition phase of their life from school to college and thereafter their professional career. Scoring well in CBSE class 12 board exam chemistry paper becomes inevitable for a student to get into a good college and thereafter get better career opportunities. One of the important aspects to score well in chemistry paper class 12 is to analyze previous year papers since CBSE asks questions on the same pattern in subsequent years. Therefore in this regard to holistically understand the crux and analyze the CBSE 12th chemistry previous year question papers with solutions for students, we have provided the analysis of chemistry papers here. Along with this, stepwise solutions of each set are given. While going through question papers, students will be able to understand which topics are repeatedly asked and which are not, hence helping them to study exam-oriented by focusing more on important topics that are repeatedly being asked in the exam. Also, check CBSE Class 12 previous year questions for all subjects.
CBSE Class 12 Chemistry 2019 Question Paper Set-wise
Solutions of unique questions of 15 sets of Chemistry board paper 2019 class 12 CBSE PDF solved are quite helpful. For example, solutions to all the questions in the set 56-1-1 are given and only the unique questions of set 56-1-2 and 56-1-3 are given. Practicing the Previous Year CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Question Paper 2019 not only strengthens the concepts but also helps in completing the paper on time ultimately maximizing marks in their examination. Also, check CBSE board exam papers for all available classes and subjects. For enhanced preparation, students can also utilize CBSE Class 12 chemistry sample papers.
Question 1)
Out of and
, which one shows Frenkel defect and why?
Question 8)
Write balanced chemical equations for the following processes :
Question 9)
Arrange the following in order of property indicated for each set :
Question 10)
State Raoult’s law for a solution containing volatile components. Write two characteristics of the solution which obeys Raoult’s law at all concentrations.
Question 11)
For a reaction
the proposed mechanism is as given below :
(i) Write rate law for the reaction
(ii) Write the overall order of reaction.
(iii) Out of steps a and 2, which one rate determining step?
Question 12)
(i) What is the role of activated charcoal in gas mask?
(ii) A colloidal sol is prepared by the given method in the figure.What is the charge on hydrated ferric oxide collodial particles formed in the test tube? How is the sol represented?
(iii) How does chemisorption vary with temperature?
Question 13)
An element crystallizes in fcc lattice with cell edge of 300 pm. The density of element is . Calculate the number of atoms in 108g of the element.
Question 14)
(a) Name the method of refining which is
(i) used to obtain semiconductor of high purity
(ii) used to obtain low boiling point
(b) Write chemical reactions taking place in the extraction of copper from .
Question 15)
Give reasons for the following:
(i) Transition elements and their compounds act as catalysts.
(ii) value for
is negative whereas for
is positive.
(iii) Actinoids shows irregularities in their electronic confriguration.
Question 16)
Write the structures of monomers used for getting the following polymers:
(i) Nylon - 6,6
(ii) Glyptal
(iii) Buna - S
Question 17)
(i) Is a homopolymer or copolymer?Give reasons.
(ii) Write monomers of the following polymers:
(iii) What is the role of Sulphur in vulcanization of rubber?
Question 18)
(i) What type of drug is used in sleeping pills?
(ii) What type of detergents are used in toothpaste?
(iii) Why the use of alitame as artificial sweetner is not recommended?
Question 19)
Define the following terms with a suitable example in each:
(i) Broad - spectrum antibiotics
(ii) Disinfectants
(iii) Cationic detergents
Question 20)
(i) Out of and
, which one is more reactive towards
and why?
(ii) Write the product formed when p-nitrochlorobenzene is heated with aqueous NaOH at 443K followed by acidification?
(iii) Why dextro and laevo - rotatory isomers of butan - 2-ol are difficult to seprate by fractional distillation?
Question 21)
An aromatic compound 'A' on heating with and KOH forms compound 'B' of molecular formula
which on reacting with
and alcoholic KOH produces a foul smelling compound 'C'. Write the structures and IUPAC names of compound A,B and C.
Question 23)
Write chemical equations for the following reactions:
(i) Propane is treated with dilute .
(ii) Acetophenone is treated with .
(iii) Benzoyl chloride is hydrogenated in presence of .
Question 24)
Differentiate between the following:
(i) Amylose and Amylopectin
(ii) Peptide linkage and Glycosidic linkage
(iii) Fibrous proteins and Globular proteins
Question 25)
Write chemical reactions to show that open structure D-glucose contains the following:
(i) Straight chain
(ii) Five alcohol groups
(iii) Aldehyde as carbonyl group
Question 26)
for the given redox reaction is 2.71 V.
Calculate for the reaction. Write the direction of flow of current when external opposite potential is applied us:
(i) less than 2.71V
(ii) greater than 2.71V
Question 27)
(a) Steady current of 2 amperes was passed through two electrolytic cells X and Y connected in series containing electrolytes and
untill 2.8g of Fe deposited at the cathode of cell X. How long did the current flow? Calculate the mass Zn deposited at the cathode of cell Y.
(molar mass : Fe = 56 g mol-1, Zn = 65.3 g mol-1, 1F = 96500C mol-1)
(b) In the plot of molar conductivity vs square root concentration
, following curves are obtained for two electrolytes A and B:
Answer the following:
(i) Predict the nature of electrolyte A and B.
(ii) What happens on extrapolation of to concentration approaching zero for electrolytes A and B?
Question 28)
(a) How do you convert the following:
(i) Phenol to anisole
(ii)Ethanol to Propan-2-ol
(b)write the mechanism of the following reacion:
(c)Why phenol undergoes electrophilic substitution reaction more easly than benzene?
Question 29)
(a) Account for the following:
(i) o-nitophenol is more steam volatile than p-nitrophenol.
(ii) t-butyl chloride on heating eith sodium methoxide gives 2-methylpropene instead of t-butylmethylether.
(b) Write the reaction involved in the following:
(i) Reimer - Tiemann Reaction
(ii) Friedal - Crafts Alkylation Of Phenol
(c) Give simple test to distinguish between Ethanol and Phenol.
Question 30)
(a) Given reasons for the following:
(i) Sulphur in vapour state shows paramagnetic behaviour.
(ii) N-N bond is weaker than P-P bond.
(iii) Ozone iss thermodynamically less stable than oxygen.
(b) Write the names of gas relased when CU is added to
(i) dilute HNO3 and
(ii) conc. HNO3
Question 31)
When MnO2 is fused with KOH in the presence of KNO3 as an oxidizing agent, it gives a dark green compound (A). Compound (A) disproportionates in an acidic solution to give a purple compound (B). An alkaline solution of compound (B) oxidizes KI to compound (C) whereas an acidified solution of compound (B) oxidizes KI to (D). Identify (A), (B), (C), and (D).
Question 32)
Write the IUPAC name of the complex . Draw structures of geometrical isomers for this complex.
Question 33)
Using IUPAC norms write the formulae for the following :
Question 34)
Out of and
, which one complex is
(Atomic no. of Co = 27)
Question 35)
(a) (i) Write the disproportionation reaction of .
(ii) Draw the structure of
(b) Account for the following:
(i) Although Fluorine has less negative electtron gain enthalpy yet F2 is styrong oxidizing agent.
(ii) Acidic character decreases from N2O3 to Bi2O3 in group 15.
(c) Write a chemical reaction to test sulphur dioxide gas. Write chemical eqaution involved.
Question 36)
Write structures of compounds A and B in each of the following reactions :
Question 37)
The decomposition of NH 3 on a platinum surface is zero order reaction. If rate constant (k) is , how long will it take to reduce the initial concentration of NH 3 from 0.1 M to 0.064 M.
Question 38)
A 4% solution (w/w) of sucrose (M = 342 g mol-1) in water has freezing point of 271.15K. Calculate the freezing point of 5% glucose (M = ) in water.
(Given: Frezzing point of water = 273.15K)
Question 4)
Write IUPAC name of the complex . Draw structures of geometrical isomers for this complex.
Question 5)
Using IUPAC norms write the formulae for the following :
(i) Pentaamminenitrito-O-cobalt chloride
(ii) Potassium tetracyanidonickelate
Question 6)
(i) Write the role of 'CO' in the purification of nickel.
(ii) What is the role of silica in the extraction of copper ?
(iii) What type of metals are generally extracted by electrolytic method ?
Question 7)
Give reasons for the following :
(i) Transition metals form alloys.
(ii) is basic whereas
is acidic.
(iii) is a strong reducing agent.
Question 8)
(i) Why bithional is added in soap ?
(ii) Why magnesium hydroxide is a better antacid than sodium bicarbonate ?
(iii) Why soaps are biodegradable whereas detergents are non-biodegradable ?
Question 9)
Define the following terms with a suitable example in each :
(i) Antibiotics
(ii) Artificial sweeteners
(iii) Analgesics
Question 10)
Write the structures of main products when benzene diazonium chloride reacts with the following reagents :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Question 4)
Write the hybridization and magnetic character of the following complexes:
(i)
(ii)
(Atomic number of Fe = 26)
Question 5)
Write the structures of main componds A and B in each of the following reactions:
(i)
(ii)
Question 6)
How will you convert the following:
(i) Impure Nickel to pure Nickel
(ii) Zinc blende to Zinc metal
(iii) to Ag
Question 7)
Given reasons for the following:
(i) The transition metals generally form coloured compounds.
(ii) value for
is highly positive than that for
couple.
(iii) The chemistry of actinoids elements is not so smooth as that of the lanthanoids.
Question 8)
Write equations to the following reactions:
(i) Acetylation of aniline
(ii) Coupling reaction
(iii) Carbyl amine reaction
Question 9)
Define the following with a suitable examole in each:
(i) Oligosaccharides
(ii) Denaturation of protein
(iii) Vitamins
Question 10)
Write the reaction involved when D-glucose is treated with the following reagents:
(i) water
(ii)
(iii)
Question 1)
Out of and
, which one shows Schottky defect and why?
OR
Why does apear yellow on heating?
Question 3)
What type of colloid is formed when a solid is dispersed in a liquid? Give an example.
Question 4)
Out of Chlorobenzene and Cyclohexyl chloride, which one is more reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction and why?
Question 5)
What is the basic structural difference between starch and cellulose?
OR
Write the products obtained after hydrolysis of DNA.
Question 6)
Write balanced chemical equations for the following processes :
(a) is passed throug slaked lime.
(b) gas is passed through an aqueous solution of
salt.
Question 7)
Give reasons :
(a) Cooking is faster in pressure cooker than in cooking pan.
(b) Red Blood Cells (RBC) shrink when placed in saline water but swell in distilled water.
Question 8)
Define order of reaction. Predict the order of reaction in the given grahs :
(a)
(b)
where is the initial concentration of reactant and
is half-life.
Question 9)
(a) Write two poisonous gases prepared from chlorine gas.
(b) Why does solution give blue colour on reaction with ammonia ?
Question 10)
When is fused with
in the presence of air it gives a yellow solution of compound(A). Compound (A) on acidification gives comound (B). Compound (B) on reaction with
forms an orange coloured compound (C). An acidified solution of comound (C) oxidises
to (D). Identify (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Question 11)
Write IUPAC name of the complex . What type of structural isomerism is shownby this complex?
Question 12)
Using IUPAC norms, write the formulae for the following complexes:
(a) Hexaaquachromium(III)chloride
(b) Sodium trioxalatoferrate(III)
Question 13)
(a) Although both have
hybridisation yet
is paramagnetic and
is diamagnetic. Give reason. (Atomic no. of Ni = 28)
(b) Write the electronic configuration of on the basis of crystal field theory when
(i)
(ii)
Question 14)
Write structures of main compounds A and B in each of the following reactions:
Question 15)
The following data were obtained for the reaction :
Experiment | [A]/M | [B]/M | Initial rate of formation of C/M min-1 |
(a) Find the order of reaction with respect to A and B.
(b) Write the rate law and overall order of reaction.
(c) Calculate the rate constant (k).
Question 16)
(a) Write the dispersed phase and dispersion medium of dust.
(b) Why is physisortion reversible whereas chemisorption is irreversible?
(c) A colloidal sol is prepared by the method given in the figure. What is the charge on AgI colloidal particles in the test tube? How is this sol represented?
Question 17)
An element X with an atomic mass of has density
. If the volume of unit cell is
, identify the type of cubic unit cell.
Question 18)
A solution containing is isotonic with a solution containing
. Calculate the degree of dissociation of KCl solution. Assume that both the solutions have same temperature.
Question 19)
Write the name and principle of the method used for refining of (a) Zinc, (b) Germanium, (c) Titanium.
Question 20)
Give reasons for the following :
(a) Transition metals form complex compounds.
(b) values for
are more negative than expected.
(c) Actinoids show wide range of oxidation states.
Question 21)
Write the structures of monomers used for getting the following polymers :
(a) Nylon-6
(b) Terylene
(c) Buna-N
Question 22)
(a) Is a homopolymer or copolymer? Give reason.
(b) Write the monomers of the following polymer:
(c) Write the role of benzoyl peroxide in polymerisation of ethene.
Question 23)
(a) Pick out the odd one from the following on the basis of their medicinal properties:
Equanil, Seconal , Bithional, Luminal
(b) What type of detergents are used in dishwashing liquids?
(c) Why is the use of aspartame limited to cold foods?
Question 24)
Define the following terms with a suitable example of each:
(a) Antibiotics
(b) Antiseptics
(c) Anionic detergents.
Question 25)
Among all the isomers of molecular formula identify
(a) the one isomer which is optically active.
(b) the one isomer which is highly reactive towards
(c) the two isomers which give same product on dehydrohalogenation with alcoholic .
Question 27)
How do you convert the following :
(a) N-phenylethanamide to p-bromoaniline
(b) Benzene diazonium chloride to nitrobenzene
(c) Benzoic acid to aniline
Question 28)
(a) Give reasons :
(i) Benzoic zcid is a stronger acid than acetic acid.
(ii) Methanal is more reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction than ethanal.
(b) Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between propanal and propanone.
Question 29)
(a) What are the products of hydrolysis of maltose?
(b) What type of bonding provides stability to structure of protein?
(c) Name the vitamin whose deficiency causes pernicious anaemia.
Question 30)
Define the following terms :
(a) Invert sugar
(b) Native protein
(c) Nucleotide
Question 31)
(a) The conductivity of acetic acid is
. Calculate the dissociation constant if
for acetic acid is
.
(b) Write Nernst equation for the reaction at :
(c) What are secondary batteries? Give an example.
Question 32)
(a) Represent the cell in which the following reaction takes place :
Calculate its emf if .
(b) How does molar conductivity vary with increase in concentration for strong electrolyte and weak electrolyte? How can you obtain limiting molar conductivity for weak electrolyte?
Question 33)
(a) Give equations of the following reactions:
(i) Phenol is treated with
(ii) Propene is treated with followed by
(iii) Sodium t-butoxide is treated with
(b) How will you distinguish between and
?
(c) Arrange the following in increasing order of acidity :
Phenol, ethanol, water
Question 34)
(a) How can you obtain Phenol from (i) Cumene, (ii) Benzene sulphonic acid, (iii) Benzene diazonium chloride?
(b) Write the structure of the major product obtained from dinitration of
(c) Write the reaction involved in Kolbe's reaction.
Question 35)
(a) Give one example to show the anomalous reaction of fluorine.
(b) What is the structural difference between white phosphorus and red phosphorus?
(c) What happens when reacts with
(d) Why is a better reducing agent than
?
(e) Arrange the following acids in the increasing order of their acidic character :
and
Question 36)
(a) Account for the following :
(i) Tendency to show oxidation state decreases from
to
in group
.
(ii) Acidic character increases from to
(iii) is more reactive than
whereas
is more reactive than
(b) Draw the structure of (i) .
Question 2)
What type of colloid is formed when a liquid is dispersed in a solid ? Give an example.
Question 3)
Give reasons :
Question 4)
Define the following terms with a suitable example of each :
(a) Chelate complex
(b) Ambidentate ligand
Question 5)
Using IUPAC norms, write the formulae for the following complexes :
(a) Tetraamminediaquacobalt(III) chloride
(b) Dibromidobis(ethane-1,2-diamine)platinum(IV) nitrate
Question 6)
(a) Using valence bond theory, write the hybridisation and magnetic character of the complex. Atomic Number of Fe = 26)
(b) Write the electronic configuration of d 6 on the basis of crystal field theory when
Question 7)
(a) Write the dispersed phase and dispersion medium of milk.
(b) Why is adsorption exothermic in nature?
(c) Write Freundlich adsorption isotherm for gases at high pressure.
Question 8)
Write the name and principle of the method used for refining of (a) Tin, (b) Copper, (c) Nickel.
Question 9)
Give reasons for the following :
(a) Transition metals show variable oxidation states.
(b) Eo value for (Zn2+/Zn) is negative while that of (Cu2+/Cu) is positive.
(c) Higher oxidation state of Mn with fluorine is +4 whereas with oxygen is +7.
Question 10)
(a) Write one example each of
(i) Thermoplastic polymer
(ii) Elastomers
(b) Arrange the following polymers in the increasing order of their intermolecular forces :
Polythene, Nylon-6,6, Buna-S
(c) Which factor provides crystalline nature to a polymer like Nylon?
Question 11)
Write the structures of monomers used for getting the following polymers :
(a) Nylon-6,6
(b) Bakelite
(c) Buna-S
Question 2)
What type of colloid is formed when a solid is dispersed in a gas? Give an example.
Question 4)
Give reasons :
(a) An increase in temperature is observed on mixing chloroform and acetone.
(b) Aquatic animals are more comfortable in cold water than in warm water.
Question 5)
Define the following terms with a suitable example of each:
(a) Polydentate ligand
(b) Homoleptic complex
Question 6)
Write structures of main compounds A and B in each of the following reactions :
(a)
(b)
Question 7)
(a) Write the dispersed phase and dispersion medium of butter.
(b) Why does physisorption decrease with increase in temperature ?
(c) A colloidal sol is prepared by the method given in the figure. What is the charge on Agl colloidal particles formed in the test tube?How is this sol represented ?
Question 8)
Write the principle of the following :
(a) Hydraulic washing
(b) Chromatography
(c) Froth-floatation process
Question 9)
Give reasons for the following :
(a) Transition metals have high enthalpies of atomization.
(b) Manganese has lower melting point even though it has a higher number of unpaired electrons for bonding.
(c) is a strong oxidising agent.
Question 10)
Write the structure of monomers used for getting the following polymers:
(a) Novolac
(b) Neoprene
(c) Buna-S
Question 11)
(a) Write the product when D-glucose reacts with .
(b)What type of bonding provides stability to structure of protein.
(c) Name the vitamin whose deficiency causes pernicious anaemia.
Question 12)
(a) Write one example each of
(i) Cross-linked polymer
(ii) Natural polymer
(b) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their intermolecular forces:
Terylene, Buna-N, Polystyrene
(c) Define biodegradable polymers with an example.
Question 13)
Define the following terms:
(a) Invert sugar
(b) Native protein
(c) Nucleotide
Question 14)
Using IUPAC norms, write the formulae for the following complexes :
(a) Potassium tri(oxalato) chromate(III)
(b) Hexaaquamanganese (II) sulphate
Question 2)
Arrange the following in increasing order of their acidic character :
Benzoic acid, Phenol, Cresol
Question 4)
Using IUPAC norms, write the formula of Ammonium tetrafluoridocobaltate (II).
Question 5)
What is the difference between a glycosidic linkage and a peptide linkage ?
Question 8)
What type of defect is shown by in
(a) stoichiometric defects, and
(b) non-stoichiometric defects ?
Question 9)
(a) Out of molal aqueous solution of glucose and
molal aqueous solution of
, which one will have higher boiling point and why ?
(b) Predict whether van’t Hoff factor, is less than one or greater than one in the following :
(i) dissolved in water
(ii) dissolved in benzene
Question 11)
Write balanced chemical equations involved in the following reactions :
(a) Fluorine gas reacts with water.
(b) Phosphine gas is absorbed in copper sulphate solution.
Question 13)
Write anode and cathode reactions that occur in dry cell. How does a dry cell differ from a mercury cell ?
Question 14)
Account for the following :
(a) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is not preferred for preparing aromatic primary amines.
(b) On reaction with benzene sulphonyl chloride, primary amine yields product soluble in alkali whereas secondary amine yields product insoluble in alkali.
Question 15)
Write structures of compounds A and B in each of the following reactions :
Question 16)
(a) Following reaction takes place in the cell :
Calculate of the reaction .
[Given :
(b) How can you determine limiting molar conductivity, for strong electrolyte and weak electrolyte ?
Question 17)
Define the following with a suitable example, of each :
(a) Coagulation
(b) Multimolecular colloid
(c) Gel
Question 18)
(a) Out of starch and ferric hydroxide sol, which one can easily be coagulated and why?
(b) What is observed when an emulsion is centrifuged?
(c) What is the role of promoters and poisons in catalysis?
Question 19)
(a) An element crystallizes in bcc lattice with a cell edge of . The density of the element is
. Calculate the molar mass of the element.
(b) What type of semiconductor is obtained when
(i) is doped with In?
(ii) is doped with P?
Question 20)
A solution 0·1 M of is dissolved to the extent of
. What would be its osmotic pressure at
?
Question 21)
Write down the reactions taking place in blast furnace related to the metallurgy of iron in the temperature range 500 K – 800 K. What is the role of limestone in the metallurgy of iron ?
Question 22)
What happens when
(a) Silver is leached with in the presence of air?
(b) Copper matte is charged into silica lined converter and hot air blast is blown?
(c) is added in an ore containing PbS and ZnS during concentration by froth floatation method?
Question 23)
Give reasons for the following :
(a) Dioxygen is a gas but sulphur a solid.
(b) NO (g) released by jet airplanes is slowly depleting the ozone layer.
(c) Interhalogens are more reactive than pure halogens
Question 24)
Write the structures of monomers used to obtain the following polymers :
(a) Neoprene
(b) PHBV
(c) Bakelite
Question 25)
(a) Arrange the following polymers in decreasing order of their intermolecular forces: Bakelite, Polythene, Buna-S, Nylon-6,6
(b) Write the monomers of the following polymer :
(c) What is the structural difference between high-density polythene (HDP) and low-density polythene (LDP)?
Question 26)
(a) Why are metal hydroxides better alternatives than sodium hydrogen carbonate in antacids?
(b) Why is aspirin used in the prevention of heart-attacks?
(c) Why antihistamines do not affect the secretion of acid in the stomach ?
Question 27)
Define the following terms with a suitable example of each :
(a) Tranquilizers
(b) Antibiotics
(c) Non-ionic detergents
Question 28)
(a) Out of which one is more reactive towards SN2 reaction and why?
(b) Out of which one is more reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction and why?
(c) Out of which one is optically active and why?
Question 29)
What happens when
(a) Salicylic acid is treated with ?
(b) Phenol is oxidized with ?
(c) Anisole is treated with/anhydrous
?
Write the chemical equation in support of your answer.
Question 30)
(a) Give one chemical test as an evidence to show that
and
are ionization isomers.
(b) is paramagnetic while
is diamagnetic though both are tetrahedral. Why ? (Atomic no. of
)
(c) Write the electronic configuration of on the basis of crystal field theory when it forms an octahedral complex in the presence of
(i) strong field ligand, and
(ii) weak field ligand. (Atomic no. of )
Question 31)
Define the following terms with a suitable example of each :
(a) Anomers
(b) Essential amino acids
(c) Denaturation of protein
Question 32)
(a) Define order of reaction. How does order of a reaction differ from molecularity for a complex reaction?
(b) A first-order reaction is complete in 25 minutes. Calculate the time for
completion of the reaction.
Question 33)
(a) The decomposition of a hydrocarbon has value of rate constant as at
. At what temperature would rate constant be
if energy of activation is
(b) Write a condition under which a bimolecular reaction is kinetically first order. Give an example of such a reaction.
Question 34)
(a) Predict the main product of the following reactions :
(b) Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between
(c) Why is alpha hydrogen of carbonyl compounds acidic in nature?
Question 35)
(a) Write the main product formed when propanal reacts with the following reagents :
(i) 2 moles of in presence of dry
(ii) Dilute
(iii) followed by heating with
in ethylene glycol
(b) Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their property as indicated :
(i) — acid character
(ii) Acetone, Acetaldehyde, Benzaldehyde, Acetophenone — reactivity towards the addition of .
Question 36)
(a) Account for the following :
(i) Manganese shows maximum number of oxidation states in 3d series.
(ii) value for
couple is much more positive than that for
.
(iii) is colourless whereas
is coloured in an aqueous solution.
(b) Write the chemical equations for the preparation of from
. Why does purple colour of acidified permanganate solution decolourise when it oxidises
to
?
Question 37)
(a) Write one difference between transition elements and p-block elements with reference to variability of oxidation states.
(b) Why do transition metals exhibit higher enthalpies of atomization?
(c) Name an element of lanthanoid series which is well known to shown oxidation state. Is it a strong oxidising agent or reducing agent ?
(d) What is lanthanoid contraction? Write its one consequence.
(e) Write the ionic equation showing the oxidation of salt by acidified dichromate solution.
Question 6)
Write balanced chemical equations involved in the following reactions:
(a) Chlorine gas reacts with cold and dilute NaOH.
(b) Calcium phosphide is dissolved in water.
Question 8)
(a) Write the reaction that occurs at anode on electrolysis of concentrated using platinum electrodes.
(b) What is the effect of temperature on ionic conductance?
Question 10)
Write the structures of monomers used to obtain the following polymers:
(a) Buna-S
(b) Glyptal
(c) Nylon-6
Question 11)
(a) Arrange the following polymers in increasing order of their intermolecular forces:
Polyvinylchloride, Neoprene, Terylene
(b) Write one example each of
(i) Natural Polymer
(ii) Thermosetting polymer
(c) What is the significance of numbers 6,6 in the polymer Nylon-6,6?
Question 12)
(a) Which one of the following is disinfectant?
0.2% solution of phenol or 1% solution of phenol.
(b) What is the difference between agonists and antagonists?
(c) Write one example each of
(i) Artificial sweetener
(ii) Antacids
Question 13)
Define the following terms with a suitable example of each:
(a) Antiseptics
(b) Bactericidal antibiotics
(c) Cationic detergents
Question 3)
Arrange the following in increasing order of their acidic character:
Ethanol, Phenol, Water
Question 5)
Write balanced chemical equations involved in the following reactions :
Question 7)
Write the name of two fuels other than hydrogen used in fuel cell. Write two advantages of fuel cell over an ordinary cell.
Question 8)
Give reasons for the following :
Question 9)
Write the structures of monomers used to obtain the following polymers :
Question 11)
What happens when
Question 12)
Define the following terms with a suitable example of each :
Question 2)
When a coordination compound is mixed with
, two moles of
are precipitated per mole of the compound. What is the structural formula of the coordination compound ?
Question 5)
Why is t-butyl bromide more reactive towards reaction as compared to n-butyl bromide ?
Question 6)
Write the reaction involved in the Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction.
Question 7)
Propanamine and N,N-dimethylmethanamine contain the same number of carbon atoms, even though Propanamine has higher boiling point than N,N-dimethylmethanamine. Why ?
Question 8)
Give reasons for the following :
(a) Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water than warm water.
(b) At higher altitudes people suffer from anoxia resulting in inability to think.
Question 9)
What type of azeotropic mixture will be formed by a solution of acetone and chloroform ? Justify on the basis of strength of intermolecular interactions that develop in the solution.
Question 10)
Explain with a graph, the variation of molar conductivity of a strong electrolyte with dilution.
Question 11)
When dilute ferrous sulphate solution is added to an aqueous solution containing nitrate ion followed by careful addition of concentrated sulphuric acid along the sides of test tube, a brown ring is formed at the interface between the solution and sulphuric acid layers. Which anion is confirmed by the appearance of brown ring ? What is the composition of the brown ring ?
Question 13)
Use the data to answer the following and also justify giving reason :
(a) Which is a stronger reducing agent in aqueous medium, or
and why ?
(b) Which is the most stable ion in oxidation and why ?
Question 14)
Define with equation :
(a) Riemer-Tiemann Reaction
(b) Williamson’s Synthesis
Question 15)
Give the structures of monomers of the following polymers :
(a) Nylon-6,6
(b) Buna-S
Question 16)
Classify the following as addition and condensation polymers giving reason :
(a) Teflon
(b) PHBV
Question 17)
Chromium crystallises in bcc structure. If its edge length is , find its density. Atomic mass of chromium is
Question 18)
At 300 K, 30 g of glucose present in a litre of its solution has an osmotic pressure of 4·98 bar. If the osmotic pressure of a glucose solution is 1·52 bar at the same temperature, what would be its concentration ?
Question 20)
Chromium metal is electroplated using an acidic solution containing according to the following equation :
Calculate how many grams of chromium will be electroplated by 24,000 coulombs. How long will it take to electroplate 1·5 g chromium using 12·5 A current ?
[Atomic mass of ]
Question 21)
Give reasons for the following :
(a) Leather gets hardened after tanning.
(b) is preferred over
in case of a cut leading to bleeding.
(c) Freundlich isotherm becomes independent of pressure at high pressure for a gas absorbed on a solid.
Question 22)
What is the role of
(a) Depressants in froth floatation ?
(b) Carbon monoxide in Mond’s process ?
(c) Concentrated sodium hydroxide in leaching of alumina from bauxite ?
Question 23)
Write chemical reactions taking place in the extraction of Aluminium from Bauxite ore.
Question 24)
Explain the method of preparation of sodium dichromate from chromite ore. Give the equation representing oxidation of ferrous salts by dichromate ion.
Question 26)
Write the hybridization and magnetic character of the following complexes :
(i)
(ii)
[Atomic number : ]
Question 27)
Give reasons for the following :
(a) The presence of group at ortho or para position increases the reactivity of haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution
reactions.
(b) p-dicholorobenzene has higher melting point than that of ortho or meta isomer.
(c) Thionyl chloride method is preferred for preparing alkyl chloride from alcohols.
Question 28)
(a) Write equation for preparation of from
(b) Out of ,
and
, which compound is most reactive towards elimination reaction and why ?
(c) Give IUPAC name of :
Question 29)
(a) How will you synthesise the following alcohol from appropriate alkene :
(b) Write the mechanism of the following reaction :
Question 30)
(a) Give one chemical test to distinguish between the compounds of the following pairs :
(i) and
(ii) Aniline and Ethanamine
(b) Why aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction ?
Question 31)
(a) Give any one property of glucose that cannot be explained by the open chain structure.
(b) Compare amylase with amylopectin in terms of constituting structure.
(c) Why do amino acids show amphoteric behaviour ?
Question 32)
Define the following with suitable example of each :
(a) Antiseptics
(b) Non-narcotic analgesics
(c) Cationic detergents
Question 33)
(a) Consider the reaction for which the change in concentration of
with time is shown by the following graph :
(i) Predict the order of reaction.
(ii) What does the slope of the curve indicate ?
(b) The rate of reaction quadruples when temperature changes from to
. Calculate
assuming that it does not change with time.
Question 34)
(a) Draw the plot of vs
for a chemical reaction. What does the intercept represent ? What is the relation between slope and
?
(b) A first order reaction takes 30 minutes for decomposition. Calculate
.
Question 35)
(a) Draw the structure of the following :
(i)
(ii)
(b) Give reasons for the following :
(i) Above sulphur shows paramagnetism.
(ii) Although electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less negative than that of chlorine, yet flourine is a better oxidising agent than chlorine.
(iii) In solid state exists as an ionic compound.
Question 36)
(a) Complete the following reactions :
(i)
(ii)
(b) Arrange the following in increasing order of property indicated, giving reason :
(i) Hydrides of group – boiling points
(ii) Hydrides of group – acidic strength
(iii) Hydrides of group – reducing character
Question 37)
(a) Carry out the following conversions :
(i) to
(ii) Propanoic acid to acetic acid
(b) An alkene with molecular formula on ozonolysis gives a mixture of two compounds, B and C. Compound B gives positive
Fehling test and also reacts with iodine and solution. Compound C does not give Fehling solution test but forms
iodoform. Identify the compounds A, B and C.
Question 38)
(a) Carry out the following conversions :
(i) Benzoic acid to aniline
(ii) Bromomethane to ethanol
(b) Write the structure of major product(s) in the following :
Question 1)
What is the coordination number of atoms in a (i) bcc structure, and (ii) fcc structure ?
Question 2)
Which alkyl halide from the following pair would you expect to react more rapidly by an mechanism ?
Question 3)
Why are powdered substances more effective adsorbents than their crystalline forms ?
Question 4)
Write the equations involved in the following reactions :
(a) Kolbe’s reaction
(b) Friedel-Crafts alkylation of anisole
Question 5)
Write the structures of monomers of the following polymers :
(a) Terylene
(b) Buna-N
Question 6)
Give reasons for the following :
(a) Brownian movement provides stability to the colloidal solution.
(b) True solution does not show Tyndall effect.
(c) Addition of alum purifies the water.
Question 7)
(a) Show how you will synthesise the following alcohol prepared by the reaction of a suitable Grignard reagent on methanal ?
(b) Write the mechanism of the following reaction :
Question 8)
What happens when D-Glucose is treated with the following reagents :
(a) water
(b) HCN
(c)
Question 9)
Define the following terms with a suitable example of each :
(a) Antacids
(b) Artificial sweeteners
(c) Anionic detergents
Question 2)
Write the name of monomers and their structures for the following polymers :
(a) Neoprene
(b) Nylon-6
Question 3)
What happens when
(a) Phenol reacts with Conc. ?
(b) Ethyl chloride reacts with ?
Write the chemical equations involved in the above reactions.
Question 4)
Define the following terms with a suitable example of each :
(a) Sol
(b) Aerosol
(c) Hydrosol
Question 5)
(a) What are antidepressant drugs ? Give an example.
(b) Name the sweetening agent used in preparation of sweets for a diabetic patient.
(c) Why are detergents non-biodegradable ?
Question 6)
(a) What is the difference between native protein and denatured protein ?
(b) Which one of the following is a disaccharide : Glucose, Lactose, Amylose, Fructose
(c) Write the name of the vitamin responsible for the coagulation of blood.
Question 7)
(a) Butan-1-ol has a higher boiling point than diethyl ether. Why ?
(b) Write the mechanism of the following reaction :
Question 1)
A cube solid is made up of two elements A and B. Element A forms ccp while atoms of element B occupy one - third of the tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the soild?
Question 7)
Arrange the following in increasing order of crystal field splitting energy:
Question 8)
Following reactions may occur at carhode and anode during electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride. What products will be held at anode and cathode? Use given values to justify your answer.
Cathode :
Anode :
Question 9)
Show that for a first order reaction, time required for completion of 99% of reaction is twice the time required for complrtion of 90% of reaction.
Question 10)
Arrange the hydrides of group 16 in order of increasing boiling points, giving reason. Name the hydride which is most stable thermodynamically.
Question 12)
An aromatic compound 'A' on treatment with and KOH gives two compounds, both of which gives same product 'B' when distilled with zinc dust. Oxidation of 'B' gives 'C' with molecular formula
. Sodium salt of 'C' on heating with soda lime gives 'D' which may also be obtained by distilling 'A' with Zinc dust. Identify 'A', 'B', 'C' and 'D'.
Question 14)
What happens when D- glucose is treated with the following? Give equations to support your answer.
(a)
(b)
Question 17)
(a) Following is the alignment of magnetic moments of a substance when placed in a magnetic field. Identify the type of magnetism exhibited by the substance.
(b) Analysis shows that nickel oxide has formula . What frctions of nickel exist as
and
ions?
Question 18)
Calculate the emf of the following cell at :
Given:
(log 2 = 0.3010, log 3 = 0.4771)
Question 19)
The reaction between A and B is first order with respect to A and zero order with respect to B. For this reaction, fill in the blanks in the following table.
Experiment | [A] mol/L | [B] mol/L | Initial rate mol/L/min |
I | 0.1 | 0.1 | |
II | - | 0.2 | |
III | 0.4 | 0.4 | - |
IV | - | 0.2 |
Question 20)
(a) A colloidal solution of AgI is prepared by adding AgNO3 solution drop - by - drop to excess of KI solution. What will be the charge on sol so formed? What is the cause of the charge?
(b) Which of the following adsorption isobars reperesnts physiorption? Justify the answer.
(x/m - extent of adsorption, t- temperature.)
(c) Two gases A and B have critical temperature 430K and 190K respectively. Which gas will be readily adsorbed and why?
Question 21)
State the principle involved in the following metallurgical processes:
(a) Froth floation
(b) Zone refining
(c) Vapour phase refining
Question 22)
Give one point difference between the following:
(a) Cast Iron and Pig Iron
(b) Hydraluic washing and Liquation
(c) Leaching and Roasting
Question 23)
Giv reason for the following:
(a) The only oxidation state shown by Scandium is +3.
(b) is colourless.
(c) MnO is basic while is acidic.
Question 24)
Answer the following:
(a) What is the general electronic configuration of lanthanoids?
(b) What are the common oxidation states of Cerium (At.no. 58)?
(c) Why do actinoids show a wide range of osidation states?
Question 25)
Using valence bond theory, predict the hybridization and magnetic charater of the following:
(a)
(b)
[ At.no: Co = 27, Ni = 28]
Question 26)
(a) Define the following terms:
(i) Enantiomers
(ii) Racemic mixture
(b) Why is chlorobenzene resistant to nucleophilic substitution reaction?
Question 27)
Give one chemical test to distinguish between the following:
(a) Phenol and 1-Propanol
(b) Ethanol amd dimethyl ether
(c) 1-propanol and 2-Methyl - 2- propanol
Question 29)
Account for the following, supporting your naswer with diagrams or equations wherever possible.
(a) Diazomium salts of aromatic amines are more stable than those of alihatic amines.
(b) Methylamine in water reacts with ferric chloride to precipipate hydrated ferric oxide.
Question 30)
Arrange the following in decreasing order of gving reason:
(a) Aniline, p-nitroanilline and p-toluidine
(b) in gaseous state.
Question 31)
Answer the following with reasons:
(a) Is , a homopolymer or copolymer?
(b) Is PVC a condensation or addition polymer?
(c) Is Bakelite a thermoplastic or thermosetting plastic?
Question 32)
Answer the following:
(a) What is the tincture of iodine? What is the use?
(b) What are the main constituents of dettol?
(c) Label the hydrophilic and hydrophobic parts of the given compound:
Question 33)
(a) Draw the graph between vapour pressure and temperature and explain the elevation in boiling point of a solvent in solution.
(b) Determine the osmotic pressure of a solution prepared by dissolving 25mg of in 2 litres of water at
assuming it to be completely dissiciated.(Atomic masses K = 39u, S = 32u, O= 16u)
Question 34)
(a) Write two characteristics of non-ideal solution.
(b) 2g of benzoic acid dissolved in 25g of benzene shows a dpression in freezing point equal to -1.62K. Molal depression constant for benzene is 4.9 K kg mol-1. What is the percentage association of acid if it forms dimer in solution?
Question 35)
Give reasons for the following
(a) dimerises readily.
(b) Chlorine acts as bleaching agent.
(c) In spite of small size, electron gain enthaply of oxygen is less negative as compared to sulphur.
(d) Unlike chlorine, fluorine forms only one oxaacid, HOF.
(e) Noble gas has very low boiling points.
Question 36)
(a) Draw structure and name the shape of the following:
(i)
(ii)
(b) What happens when (support your answer with equation)
(i) Chlorine gas is passed through hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution?
(ii) Xenon hexafluoride is subjected to complete hydrolysis?
(iii) Concentrated sulphuric acid is poured over cane sugar?
Question 37)
(a) Give IUPAC name of .
(b) How can you distinguish between ethanol and ethanal?
(c) How will you convert the following:
(i) Toulene to benzoic acid
(ii) Ethanol to propan-2-ol
(iii) Propanal to 2- hydroxypropanic acid
Question 38)
(a) Give IUPAC name of Salicylic acid.
(b) Chloroacetic acid is more acidic than acetic acid. Why?
(c) Write the products formed when reacts with the following:
(i) Zinc amalgam and dilute hydrolic acid
(ii) Concentrated sodium hydroxide solution
(iii) Semicarbazide and weak acid
Question 1)
A cube soild is made up of two elements A and B. Element A forms hcp while atoms of element B occupy two-third of the octahedral voids. What is the formula of the soild?
Question 4)
What happens when
(a) is hydrolysed?
(b) is passed into aqueous solution of
salt?
Question 7)
(a) What type of stiochiometric defect is shown by NaCl and why?
(b) Calculate its efficency of packing in case of metal crystal for face centred cubic unit cell.
Question 9)
Differentiate between the following:
(a) Antispetic and Disinfecants
(b) Antacids and Antihistamines
(c) Soaps and Detergents
Question 10)
Using valence bond theroy predict the hybridization and magnetic character of the following:
(a)
(b)
Question 3)
A compound is formed by two elements X and Y. Atoms of the element Y (as anoins) make ccp and those of the elements X (as cations) occupy all octahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound?
Question 4)
Differntiate between:
(a) Nucleotide and Nucleoside
(b) Amylose and Amylopectin
Question 7)
(a) What type of stoichiometric defect is shown by AgCl and why?
(b) Calculate the efficiency of packing in case of a metal ceystal for simple cubic unit cell.
Question 8)
Define the following terms:
(a) Coagulation
(b) Associated colloids
(c) Brownian movement
Question 9)
Using valence bond theory, predict the hybidization and magnetic character of the following:
(a)
(b)
[At. no : Co=27, Ni=28]
Question 10)
(a) Which one of the following drugs is an antibiotic:
Equanil, Ofloxacin, Aspirin, Luminal
(b) Why is use of aspartame limited to cold food and drinks?
(c) Why do we require artifical sweeting agents?
Question 5)
Draw the structure of product formed when propanal is treated with zinc amalgam and concentrated hydrochloric acid.
Question 8)
Define conductivity and molar conductivity for the solution of an electrolyte. Why does the conductivity of solution decrease with dilution ?
Question 9)
For a reaction, .
(a) Write the unit of rate constant.
(b) Calculate its half-life .
Question 10)
(a) Draw the structure of an oxide of nitrogen where the oxidation state of nitrogen is +5.
(b) With the help of a balanced chemical equation, suggest what happens when white phosphorus reacts with NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere.
Question 11)
(a) Actinoid contraction is greater than lanthanoid contraction. Give reason.
(b) Out of Fe and Cu, which has higher melting point and why ?
Question 12)
Predict the major product obtained when t-butyl bromide reacts with sodium methoxide. Also, give its IUPAC name.
Question 13)
(a) Show the chemical reaction with bond movements and arrows for the nucleophilic attack of water on carbocation in acid catalysed hydration of alkenes.
(b) Give IUPAC name for the following :
Question 14)
Aluminium crystallises in a fcc structure. Atomic radius of the metal is 125 pm. What is the length of the side of unit cell of the metal ?
Question 15)
The compound CuCl has fcc structure like ZnS. Its density is . What is the volume of unit cell ?
Given : Atomic mass of Cu = 63·5 u; Cl = 35·5 u
Question 16)
Answer the following :
(a) What is the formula of a compound in which element Y forms ccp lattice and atoms X occupy of tetrahedral voids ?
(b) What type of non-stoichiometric point defect leads to colour in alkali metal halides ?
Question 17)
Zinc rod is dipped in 0·01 M solution of zinc sulphate when temperature is 298 K. Calculate the electrode potential of zinc. (Given :
)
Question 18)
The rate constant of a first order reaction increases from to
when the temperature changes from 300 K to 320 K. Calculate the energy of activation. (Given : log 2 = 0·3010, log 3 = 0·4771, log 4 = 0·6021)
Question 19)
Answer the following :
(a) Why is ester hydrolysis slow in the beginning and then becomes faster after some time ?
(b) In a solution of methylene blue, animal charcoal is added, the solution is then well shaken. What will be observed and why ?
(c) Give an example of oil in water emulsion.
Question 20)
Define the following :
(a) Associated colloids
(b) Electrophoresis
(c) Zeta potential
Question 21)
(a) What is the difference between calamine and malachite ?
(b) Why is zinc used instead of Cu for recovery of Ag from ?
(c) What is the role of cryolite in metallurgy of Al ?
Question 22)
(a) Give two points of differences between pig iron and cast iron.
(b) Outline the principle of zone refining.
Question 23)
(a) Complete the following chemical reactions :
(b) How does the colour of change when treated with an alkali ?
Question 24)
(a) Draw the structures of geometrical isomers of .
(b) is paramagnetic while
is diamagnetic though both are tetrahedral. Why ? [Atomic number of Ni = 28]
Question 25)
Define the following :
(a) Ambidentate ligands
(b) Spectro chemical series
(c) Heteroleptic complexes
Question 26)
(a) Write the product formed when
(i) 2-chloropropane is treated with alc. KOH.
(ii) Aniline reacts with conc. at 453 – 473 K.
(b) When aniline is heated with and alc. KOH, a foul smelling compound is formed. What is this compound ?
Question 27)
(a) How will you convert the following :
(i) Phenol to benzoquinone
(ii) Propanone to 2-methyl propan-2-ol
(b) Why does propanol have higher boiling point than that of butane ?
Question 28)
(a) Identify X and Y in the following :
(b) Amino group is o, p-directing for aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions. Why does aniline on nitration give m-nitroaniline ?
Question 29)
(a) What happens when D-glucose is treated with the following reagents :
(i) HI
(ii) conc.
(b) What is the basic structural difference between starch and cellulose ?
Question 30)
(a) Write the names of monomers of following polymer :
(b) What does part 6,6 mean in the polymer Nylon-6,6 ?
(c) Give an example of Biodegradable polymer.
Question 31)
(a) Differentiate between antiseptic and disinfectant. Give one example of each.
(b) Why do we require artificial sweetening agents ?
Question 33)
(a) A 5% solution (by mass) of cane sugar in water has a freezing point of 271 K. Calculate the freezing point of 5% solution (by mass) of glucose in water. The freezing point of pure water is 273·15 K.
(b) Why is osmotic pressure of 1 M KCl higher than 1 M urea solution ?
(c) What type of liquids form ideal solutions ?
Question 34)
(a) 1·0 g of a non-electrolyte solute dissolved in 50 g of benzene lowered the freezing point of benzene by 0·40 K. The freezing point depression constant of benzene is . Find the molar mass of the solute.
(b) What is the significance of Henry’s law constant, ?
(c) What leads to anoxia ?
Question 35)
A crystalline solid ‘A’ burns in air to form a gas ‘B’ which turns lime water milky. The gas is also produced as a by-product during roasting of sulphide ore. This gas decolourises acidified (aq.) solution and reduces
to
. Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ and write the reactions involved.
Question 36)
Answer the following :
(a) Arrange the following hydrides of Group 16 elements in the decreasing order of their acidic strength :
(b) Which one of and
is not likely to exist and why ?
(c) Which allotrope of sulphur is thermally stable at room temperature ?
(d) Write the formula of a compound of phosphorus which is obtained when conc. oxidises
.
(e) Why does fume in moisture ?
Question 37)
(a) An organic compound with the molecular formula forms 2,4-DNP derivative, reduces Tollen’s reagent and undergoes Cannizzaro reaction. On oxidation, it gives benzoic acid. Identify the compound and state the reactions involved.
(b) Give chemical tests to distinguish between the following pair of compounds :
(i) Phenol and propanol
(ii) Benzoic acid and benzene
Question 38)
(a) Predict the products of the following:
(b) Arrange the following in increasing order of acidic character :
Question 4)
(a) Draw the structure of .
(b) What happens when carbon reacts with conc. ? Write a balanced chemical equation.
Question 5)
Give reasons:
(a) Of the species,
is strongly reducing while
is strongly oxidizing.
(b) The configuration is very unstable in ions.
Question 6)
(a) Atoms of element B form hcp lattice and those of the element A occupy of octahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound formed by the elements A and B?
(b) What type of stoichiometric defect is shown by ZnS and why?
Question 7)
(a) Complete the following chemical reactions:
(i)
(ii)
(b) Name a member of the lanthanoid series which shows +4 oxidation state.
Question 8)
(a) How will you convert the following :
(i) Phenol to benzene
(ii) Propene to propanol
(b) Why is ortho-nitrophenol more acidic than ortho-methoxyphenol?
Question 9)
(a) Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the following reaction:
(b) Why is ethylamine soluble in water whereas aniline is not?
Question 10)
Write the names and structures of the monomers of the following polymers :
(a) Neoprene
(b) Bakelite
(c) PVC
Question 3)
Name a substance which can be used as an antiseptic as well as a disinfectant.
Question 4)
(a) Atoms of element Q form ccp lattice and those of the element P of tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound formed by the elements P and Q?
(b) What type of stoichiometric defect is shown by KCl and why?
Question 5)
(a) Draw the structure of .
(b) What happens when reacts with conc.
? Write balanced chemical equation.
Question 6)
(a) Write chemical equations involved in the preparation of from
.
(b) Actinoids show a wide range of oxidation states. Why?
Question 7)
Write the names and structures of the monomers of the following polymers:
(a) Teflon
(b) Terylene
(c) Buna-N
Question 8)
(a) Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the following reaction:
(b) Why does aniline not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction?
Question 9)
(a) How will you convert the following:
(i) Ethanal to propan-2-ol
(ii) Phenol to 2-hydroxyacetophenone
(b) Why is phenol more acidic than ethanol? Why is phenol more acidic than ethanol?
The total analysis of CBSE class 12 Chemistry question paper 2019 with solutions will give an idea of weightage and what is the pattern of the CBSE class 12 Chemistry previous year question papers.
Also read -
There are a total of 27 questions divided into 4 sections, namely A, B, C, and D. The distribution of questions is given below.
Section | No. of Questions | Marks per Question | Total marks |
A | 5 | 1 | 5 |
B | 7 | 2 | 14 |
C | 12 | 3 | 36 |
D | 3 | 5 | 15 |
There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in two
questions of one mark, two questions of two marks, four questions of three marks
and three questions of five marks. You have to attempt only one of the
choices in such questions.
Types of questions in CBSE Chemistry paper 2019
The questions asked in the chemistry class 12 question paper can be divided into Physical chemistry, Organic chemistry, and Inorganic chemistry. Some of the questions may have both theory and numerical combined in physical chemistry questions, rest will be theoretical in nature. Mostly the 5 marks questions belong to Physical chemistry in which numerals are being asked and few 5 markers are Inorganic reactions based questions. All these can be solved with the help of CBSE class 12 Chemistry question paper 2019 with solutions
Types of questions | Total marks |
Physical Chemistry Questions | 24 |
Organic Chemistry Questions | 20 |
Inorganic chemistry Questions | 26 |
Hence from the above distribution, it is clear that the weightage of inorganic chemistry is highest, hence theoretical questions weightage is quite high. Organic chemistry holds weightage of 20 marks and it is very easy to score maximum marks in this part as questions are asked from basic concepts only.
The below-given table gives an idea about the marks distribution of various CBSE 12 Chemistry question paper 2019, which gives an idea about the importance of respective chapters in the class 12 Chemistry board paper 2019
Sl.No | Chapter name | Marks Distribution |
1 | Solid State | 4 |
2 | Solution | 7 |
3 | Electrochemistry | 5 |
4 | Chemical Kinetics | 5 |
5 | General isolation of Elements | 3 |
6 | Surface Chemistry | 3 |
7 | p- block elements | 3 |
8 | d-f, block elements | 3 |
9 | Coordination compounds | 7 |
10 | Organic Chemistry | 20 |
11 | Biomolecules | 3 |
12 | Polymers | 2 |
13 | Chemistry in Everyday Life | 3 |
Total | 70 |
From the table of analysis of CBSE class 12 Chemistry paper 2019 it can be said that Electrochemistry, chemical kinetics, coordination compounds, and organic compounds hold high weightage. Hence extra attention at these chapters must be given along with Biomolecules, polymers, and Chemistry in everyday life as these are very easy chapters, and questions asked are straight forward. The overall analysis shows that all the chapters are important for Previous Year CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Question Paper 2019 with a special focus on the above-mentioned chapters.
Conclusion
The CBSE 12 Chemistry question paper 2019 seems to be quite moderate as far as the difficulty level is concerned and those who studied well and completed the syllabus are supposed to get decent marks. Questions belonging to organic chemistry were based on basic concepts and numericals were also easy. All the theory-based questions asked in the CBSE class 12 Chemistry paper 2019 are from the NCERT book.
Also read -
Application Date:20 November,2023 - 19 December,2023
Application Date:20 November,2023 - 19 December,2023
The field of biomedical engineering opens up a universe of expert chances. An Individual in the biomedical engineering career path work in the field of engineering as well as medicine, in order to find out solutions to common problems of the two fields. The biomedical engineering job opportunities are to collaborate with doctors and researchers to develop medical systems, equipment, or devices that can solve clinical problems. Here we will be discussing jobs after biomedical engineering, how to get a job in biomedical engineering, biomedical engineering scope, and salary.
Database professionals use software to store and organise data such as financial information, and customer shipping records. Individuals who opt for a career as data administrators ensure that data is available for users and secured from unauthorised sales. DB administrators may work in various types of industries. It may involve computer systems design, service firms, insurance companies, banks and hospitals.
Individuals who opt for a career as geothermal engineers are the professionals involved in the processing of geothermal energy. The responsibilities of geothermal engineers may vary depending on the workplace location. Those who work in fields design facilities to process and distribute geothermal energy. They oversee the functioning of machinery used in the field.
The role of geotechnical engineer starts with reviewing the projects needed to define the required material properties. The work responsibilities are followed by a site investigation of rock, soil, fault distribution and bedrock properties on and below an area of interest. The investigation is aimed to improve the ground engineering design and determine their engineering properties that include how they will interact with, on or in a proposed construction.
The role of geotechnical engineer in mining includes designing and determining the type of foundations, earthworks, and or pavement subgrades required for the intended man-made structures to be made. Geotechnical engineering jobs are involved in earthen and concrete dam construction projects, working under a range of normal and extreme loading conditions.
How fascinating it is to represent the whole world on just a piece of paper or a sphere. With the help of maps, we are able to represent the real world on a much smaller scale. Individuals who opt for a career as a cartographer are those who make maps. But, cartography is not just limited to maps, it is about a mixture of art, science, and technology. As a cartographer, not only you will create maps but use various geodetic surveys and remote sensing systems to measure, analyse, and create different maps for political, cultural or educational purposes.
Individuals in the operations manager jobs are responsible for ensuring the efficiency of each department to acquire its optimal goal. They plan the use of resources and distribution of materials. The operations manager's job description includes managing budgets, negotiating contracts, and performing administrative tasks.
GIS officer work on various GIS software to conduct a study and gather spatial and non-spatial information. GIS experts update the GIS data and maintain it. The databases include aerial or satellite imagery, latitudinal and longitudinal coordinates, and manually digitized images of maps. In a career as GIS expert, one is responsible for creating online and mobile maps.
A career as ethical hacker involves various challenges and provides lucrative opportunities in the digital era where every giant business and startup owns its cyberspace on the world wide web. Individuals in the ethical hacker career path try to find the vulnerabilities in the cyber system to get its authority. If he or she succeeds in it then he or she gets its illegal authority. Individuals in the ethical hacker career path then steal information or delete the file that could affect the business, functioning, or services of the organization.
A career as Bank Probationary Officer (PO) is seen as a promising career opportunity and a white-collar career. Each year aspirants take the Bank PO exam. This career provides plenty of career development and opportunities for a successful banking future. If you have more questions about a career as Bank Probationary Officer (PO), what is probationary officer or how to become a Bank Probationary Officer (PO) then you can read the article and clear all your doubts.
Individuals in the operations manager jobs are responsible for ensuring the efficiency of each department to acquire its optimal goal. They plan the use of resources and distribution of materials. The operations manager's job description includes managing budgets, negotiating contracts, and performing administrative tasks.
The invention of the database has given fresh breath to the people involved in the data analytics career path. Analysis refers to splitting up a whole into its individual components for individual analysis. Data analysis is a method through which raw data are processed and transformed into information that would be beneficial for user strategic thinking.
Data are collected and examined to respond to questions, evaluate hypotheses or contradict theories. It is a tool for analyzing, transforming, modeling, and arranging data with useful knowledge, to assist in decision-making and methods, encompassing various strategies, and is used in different fields of business, research, and social science.
A career as a Finance Executive requires one to be responsible for monitoring an organisation's income, investments and expenses to create and evaluate financial reports. His or her role involves performing audits, invoices, and budget preparations. He or she manages accounting activities, bank reconciliations, and payable and receivable accounts.
An Investment Banking career involves the invention and generation of capital for other organizations, governments, and other entities. Individuals who opt for a career as Investment Bankers are the head of a team dedicated to raising capital by issuing bonds. Investment bankers are termed as the experts who have their fingers on the pulse of the current financial and investing climate. Students can pursue various Investment Banker courses, such as Banking and Insurance, and Economics to opt for an Investment Banking career path.
Bank Branch Managers work in a specific section of banking related to the invention and generation of capital for other organisations, governments, and other entities. Bank Branch Managers work for the organisations and underwrite new debts and equity securities for all type of companies, aid in the sale of securities, as well as help to facilitate mergers and acquisitions, reorganisations, and broker trades for both institutions and private investors.
Treasury analyst career path is often regarded as certified treasury specialist in some business situations, is a finance expert who specifically manages a company or organisation's long-term and short-term financial targets. Treasurer synonym could be a financial officer, which is one of the reputed positions in the corporate world. In a large company, the corporate treasury jobs hold power over the financial decision-making of the total investment and development strategy of the organisation.
A Product Manager is a professional responsible for product planning and marketing. He or she manages the product throughout the Product Life Cycle, gathering and prioritising the product. A product manager job description includes defining the product vision and working closely with team members of other departments to deliver winning products.
A career as Transportation Planner requires technical application of science and technology in engineering, particularly the concepts, equipment and technologies involved in the production of products and services. In fields like land use, infrastructure review, ecological standards and street design, he or she considers issues of health, environment and performance. A Transportation Planner assigns resources for implementing and designing programmes. He or she is responsible for assessing needs, preparing plans and forecasts and compliance with regulations.
A Naval Architect is a professional who designs, produces and repairs safe and sea-worthy surfaces or underwater structures. A Naval Architect stays involved in creating and designing ships, ferries, submarines and yachts with implementation of various principles such as gravity, ideal hull form, buoyancy and stability.
Welding Engineer Job Description: A Welding Engineer work involves managing welding projects and supervising welding teams. He or she is responsible for reviewing welding procedures, processes and documentation. A career as Welding Engineer involves conducting failure analyses and causes on welding issues.
Are you searching for a Field Surveyor Job Description? A Field Surveyor is a professional responsible for conducting field surveys for various places or geographical conditions. He or she collects the required data and information as per the instructions given by senior officials.
Highway Engineer Job Description: A Highway Engineer is a civil engineer who specialises in planning and building thousands of miles of roads that support connectivity and allow transportation across the country. He or she ensures that traffic management schemes are effectively planned concerning economic sustainability and successful implementation.
A Conservation Architect is a professional responsible for conserving and restoring buildings or monuments having a historic value. He or she applies techniques to document and stabilise the object’s state without any further damage. A Conservation Architect restores the monuments and heritage buildings to bring them back to their original state.
A Safety Manager is a professional responsible for employee’s safety at work. He or she plans, implements and oversees the company’s employee safety. A Safety Manager ensures compliance and adherence to Occupational Health and Safety (OHS) guidelines.
A Team Leader is a professional responsible for guiding, monitoring and leading the entire group. He or she is responsible for motivating team members by providing a pleasant work environment to them and inspiring positive communication. A Team Leader contributes to the achievement of the organisation’s goals. He or she improves the confidence, product knowledge and communication skills of the team members and empowers them.
Orthotists and Prosthetists are professionals who provide aid to patients with disabilities. They fix them to artificial limbs (prosthetics) and help them to regain stability. There are times when people lose their limbs in an accident. In some other occasions, they are born without a limb or orthopaedic impairment. Orthotists and prosthetists play a crucial role in their lives with fixing them to assistive devices and provide mobility.
A career in pathology in India is filled with several responsibilities as it is a medical branch and affects human lives. The demand for pathologists has been increasing over the past few years as people are getting more aware of different diseases. Not only that, but an increase in population and lifestyle changes have also contributed to the increase in a pathologist’s demand. The pathology careers provide an extremely huge number of opportunities and if you want to be a part of the medical field you can consider being a pathologist. If you want to know more about a career in pathology in India then continue reading this article.
A veterinary doctor is a medical professional with a degree in veterinary science. The veterinary science qualification is the minimum requirement to become a veterinary doctor. There are numerous veterinary science courses offered by various institutes. He or she is employed at zoos to ensure they are provided with good health facilities and medical care to improve their life expectancy.
Gynaecology can be defined as the study of the female body. The job outlook for gynaecology is excellent since there is evergreen demand for one because of their responsibility of dealing with not only women’s health but also fertility and pregnancy issues. Although most women prefer to have a women obstetrician gynaecologist as their doctor, men also explore a career as a gynaecologist and there are ample amounts of male doctors in the field who are gynaecologists and aid women during delivery and childbirth.
An oncologist is a specialised doctor responsible for providing medical care to patients diagnosed with cancer. He or she uses several therapies to control the cancer and its effect on the human body such as chemotherapy, immunotherapy, radiation therapy and biopsy. An oncologist designs a treatment plan based on a pathology report after diagnosing the type of cancer and where it is spreading inside the body.
When it comes to an operation theatre, there are several tasks that are to be carried out before as well as after the operation or surgery has taken place. Such tasks are not possible without surgical tech and surgical tech tools. A single surgeon cannot do it all alone. It’s like for a footballer he needs his team’s support to score a goal the same goes for a surgeon. It is here, when a surgical technologist comes into the picture. It is the job of a surgical technologist to prepare the operation theatre with all the required equipment before the surgery. Not only that, once an operation is done it is the job of the surgical technologist to clean all the equipment. One has to fulfil the minimum requirements of surgical tech qualifications.
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A career as Critical Care Specialist is responsible for providing the best possible prompt medical care to patients. He or she writes progress notes of patients in records. A Critical Care Specialist also liaises with admitting consultants and proceeds with the follow-up treatments.
Individuals in the ophthalmologist career in India are trained medically to care for all eye problems and conditions. Some optometric physicians further specialize in a particular area of the eye and are known as sub-specialists who are responsible for taking care of each and every aspect of a patient's eye problem. An ophthalmologist's job description includes performing a variety of tasks such as diagnosing the problem, prescribing medicines, performing eye surgery, recommending eyeglasses, or looking after post-surgery treatment.
For an individual who opts for a career as an actor, the primary responsibility is to completely speak to the character he or she is playing and to persuade the crowd that the character is genuine by connecting with them and bringing them into the story. This applies to significant roles and littler parts, as all roles join to make an effective creation. Here in this article, we will discuss how to become an actor in India, actor exams, actor salary in India, and actor jobs.
Individuals who opt for a career as acrobats create and direct original routines for themselves, in addition to developing interpretations of existing routines. The work of circus acrobats can be seen in a variety of performance settings, including circus, reality shows, sports events like the Olympics, movies and commercials. Individuals who opt for a career as acrobats must be prepared to face rejections and intermittent periods of work. The creativity of acrobats may extend to other aspects of the performance. For example, acrobats in the circus may work with gym trainers, celebrities or collaborate with other professionals to enhance such performance elements as costume and or maybe at the teaching end of the career.
Career as a video game designer is filled with excitement as well as responsibilities. A video game designer is someone who is involved in the process of creating a game from day one. He or she is responsible for fulfilling duties like designing the character of the game, the several levels involved, plot, art and similar other elements. Individuals who opt for a career as a video game designer may also write the codes for the game using different programming languages. Depending on the video game designer job description and experience they may also have to lead a team and do the early testing of the game in order to suggest changes and find loopholes.
The career as a Talent Agent is filled with responsibilities. A Talent Agent is someone who is involved in the pre-production process of the film. It is a very busy job for a Talent Agent but as and when an individual gains experience and progresses in the career he or she can have people assisting him or her in work. Depending on one’s responsibilities, number of clients and experience he or she may also have to lead a team and work with juniors under him or her in a talent agency. In order to know more about the job of a talent agent continue reading the article.
If you want to know more about talent agent meaning, how to become a Talent Agent, or Talent Agent job description then continue reading this article.
Radio Jockey is an exciting, promising career and a great challenge for music lovers. If you are really interested in a career as radio jockey, then it is very important for an RJ to have an automatic, fun, and friendly personality. If you want to get a job done in this field, a strong command of the language and a good voice are always good things. Apart from this, in order to be a good radio jockey, you will also listen to good radio jockeys so that you can understand their style and later make your own by practicing.
A career as radio jockey has a lot to offer to deserving candidates. If you want to know more about a career as radio jockey, and how to become a radio jockey then continue reading the article.
A career as social media manager involves implementing the company’s or brand’s marketing plan across all social media channels. Social media managers help in building or improving a brand’s or a company’s website traffic, build brand awareness, create and implement marketing and brand strategy. Social media managers are key to important social communication as well.
The word “choreography" actually comes from Greek words that mean “dance writing." Individuals who opt for a career as a choreographer create and direct original dances, in addition to developing interpretations of existing dances. A Choreographer dances and utilises his or her creativity in other aspects of dance performance. For example, he or she may work with the music director to select music or collaborate with other famous choreographers to enhance such performance elements as lighting, costume and set design.
Individuals who opt for a career as a talent director are professionals who work in the entertainment industry. He or she is responsible for finding out the right talent through auditions for films, theatre productions, or shows. A talented director possesses strong knowledge of computer software used in filmmaking, CGI and animation. A talent acquisition director keeps himself or herself updated on various technical aspects such as lighting, camera angles and shots.
In a career as a copywriter, one has to consult with the client and understand the brief well. A career as a copywriter has a lot to offer to deserving candidates. Several new mediums of advertising are opening therefore making it a lucrative career choice. Students can pursue various copywriter courses such as Journalism, Advertising, Marketing Management. Here, we have discussed how to become a freelance copywriter, copywriter career path, how to become a copywriter in India, and copywriting career outlook.
Careers in journalism are filled with excitement as well as responsibilities. One cannot afford to miss out on the details. As it is the small details that provide insights into a story. Depending on those insights a journalist goes about writing a news article. A journalism career can be stressful at times but if you are someone who is passionate about it then it is the right choice for you. If you want to know more about the media field and journalist career then continue reading this article.
For publishing books, newspapers, magazines and digital material, editorial and commercial strategies are set by publishers. Individuals in publishing career paths make choices about the markets their businesses will reach and the type of content that their audience will be served. Individuals in book publisher careers collaborate with editorial staff, designers, authors, and freelance contributors who develop and manage the creation of content.
In a career as a vlogger, one generally works for himself or herself. However, once an individual has gained viewership there are several brands and companies that approach them for paid collaboration. It is one of those fields where an individual can earn well while following his or her passion. Ever since internet cost got reduced the viewership for these types of content has increased on a large scale. Therefore, the career as vlogger has a lot to offer. If you want to know more about the career as vlogger, how to become a vlogger, so on and so forth then continue reading the article. Students can visit Jamia Millia Islamia, Asian College of Journalism, Indian Institute of Mass Communication to pursue journalism degrees.
Individuals in the editor career path is an unsung hero of the news industry who polishes the language of the news stories provided by stringers, reporters, copywriters and content writers and also news agencies. Individuals who opt for a career as an editor make it more persuasive, concise and clear for readers. In this article, we will discuss the details of the editor's career path such as how to become an editor in India, editor salary in India and editor skills and qualities.
Content writing is meant to speak directly with a particular audience, such as customers, potential customers, investors, employees, or other stakeholders. The main aim of professional content writers is to speak to their targeted audience and if it is not then it is not doing its job. There are numerous kinds of the content present on the website and each is different based on the service or the product it is used for.
Individuals who opt for a career as a reporter may often be at work on national holidays and festivities. He or she pitches various story ideas and covers news stories in risky situations. Students can pursue a BMC (Bachelor of Mass Communication), B.M.M. (Bachelor of Mass Media), or MAJMC (MA in Journalism and Mass Communication) to become a reporter. While we sit at home reporters travel to locations to collect information that carries a news value.
Linguistic meaning is related to language or Linguistics which is the study of languages. A career as a linguistic meaning, a profession that is based on the scientific study of language, and it's a very broad field with many specialities. Famous linguists work in academia, researching and teaching different areas of language, such as phonetics (sounds), syntax (word order) and semantics (meaning).
Other researchers focus on specialities like computational linguistics, which seeks to better match human and computer language capacities, or applied linguistics, which is concerned with improving language education. Still, others work as language experts for the government, advertising companies, dictionary publishers and various other private enterprises. Some might work from home as freelance linguists. Philologist, phonologist, and dialectician are some of Linguist synonym. Linguists can study French, German, Italian.
Production Manager Job Description: A Production Manager is responsible for ensuring smooth running of manufacturing processes in an efficient manner. He or she plans and organises production schedules. The role of Production Manager involves estimation, negotiation on budget and timescales with the clients and managers.
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A Product Manager is a professional responsible for product planning and marketing. He or she manages the product throughout the Product Life Cycle, gathering and prioritising the product. A product manager job description includes defining the product vision and working closely with team members of other departments to deliver winning products.
A quality controller plays a crucial role in an organisation. He or she is responsible for performing quality checks on manufactured products. He or she identifies the defects in a product and rejects the product.
A quality controller records detailed information about products with defects and sends it to the supervisor or plant manager to take necessary actions to improve the production process.
Individuals who opt for a career as a production planner are professionals who are responsible for ensuring goods manufactured by the employing company are cost-effective and meets quality specifications including ensuring the availability of ready to distribute stock in a timely fashion manner.
The Process Development Engineers design, implement, manufacture, mine, and other production systems using technical knowledge and expertise in the industry. They use computer modeling software to test technologies and machinery. An individual who is opting career as Process Development Engineer is responsible for developing cost-effective and efficient processes. They also monitor the production process and ensure it functions smoothly and efficiently.
You might be googling Metrologist meaning. Well, we have an easily understandable Metrologist definition for you. A metrologist is a professional who stays involved in measurement practices in varying industries including electrical and electronics. A Metrologist is responsible for developing processes and systems for measuring objects and repairing electrical instruments. He or she also involved in writing specifications of experimental electronic units.
A Structural Engineer designs buildings, bridges, and other related structures. He or she analyzes the structures and makes sure the structures are strong enough to be used by the people. A career as a Structural Engineer requires working in the construction process. It comes under the civil engineering discipline. A Structure Engineer creates structural models with the help of computer-aided design software.
As the name suggests, a Process Engineer stays involved in designing, overseeing, assessing and implementing processes to make products and provide services efficiently. Process Engineers are responsible for creating systems to enhance productivity and cut costs.
Individuals in the information security manager career path involves in overseeing and controlling all aspects of computer security. The IT security manager job description includes planning and carrying out security measures to protect the business data and information from corruption, theft, unauthorised access, and deliberate attack
Careers in computer programming primarily refer to the systematic act of writing code and moreover include wider computer science areas. The word 'programmer' or 'coder' has entered into practice with the growing number of newly self-taught tech enthusiasts. Computer programming careers involve the use of designs created by software developers and engineers and transforming them into commands that can be implemented by computers. These commands result in regular usage of social media sites, word-processing applications and browsers.
A Product Manager is a professional responsible for product planning and marketing. He or she manages the product throughout the Product Life Cycle, gathering and prioritising the product. A product manager job description includes defining the product vision and working closely with team members of other departments to deliver winning products.
ITSM Manager is a professional responsible for heading the ITSM (Information Technology Service Management) or (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) processes. He or she ensures that operation management provides appropriate resource levels for problem resolutions. The ITSM Manager oversees the level of prioritisation for the problems, critical incidents, planned as well as proactive tasks.
.NET Developer Job Description: A .NET Developer is a professional responsible for producing code using .NET languages. He or she is a software developer who uses the .NET technologies platform to create various applications. Dot NET Developer job comes with the responsibility of creating, designing and developing applications using .NET languages such as VB and C#.
Are you searching for a Corporate Executive job description? A Corporate Executive role comes with administrative duties. He or she provides support to the leadership of the organisation. A Corporate Executive fulfils the business purpose and ensures its financial stability. In this article, we are going to discuss how to become corporate executive.
A DevOps Architect is responsible for defining a systematic solution that fits the best across technical, operational and and management standards. He or she generates an organised solution by examining a large system environment and selects appropriate application frameworks in order to deal with the system’s difficulties.
Individuals who are interested in working as a Cloud Administration should have the necessary technical skills to handle various tasks related to computing. These include the design and implementation of cloud computing services, as well as the maintenance of their own. Aside from being able to program multiple programming languages, such as Ruby, Python, and Java, individuals also need a degree in computer science.
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